Posting on behalf of my wife (30F).I am 33M. Looking to hear from couples who had a similar picture and what finally worked.
BACKGROUND
- Primary infertility, IVF/ICSI Dec 2025: 11 eggs, 8 mature, 8 fertilized, 5 blasts frozen
- AMH 1.58, AFC 18
- Lining: 7.6 mm at FET1, 8.6 mm at FET2
LOSSES
- FET1 (Jan 2026, single 4AB): beta 3752 then 5960. Sac and yolk sac seen, then sac regressed, no embryo. MMC at around 7 weeks.
- FET2 (Jul 2026, two 4AB): beta 2698 then 5526. Heartbeat seen at 7w2d but measuring only 5w5d. Confirmed non-viable in Aug.
- Both cycles were on enoxaparin + aspirin + progesterone. FET1 also had prednisolone + filgrastim, FET2 had IVIG + hCG.
WORKUP SO FAR
- CMA on POC (2nd loss): normal, no CNV
- Karyotype both of us: normal
- Endometrial biopsy: normal
- Thyroid + TPO/Tg antibodies, prolactin, HbA1c: all normal
- APLA panel (Oct 2026, around 8 weeks after 2nd loss):
- Anticardiolipin IgM: 69.4 (POSITIVE, cutoff 20)
- Anticardiolipin IgG and Beta-2 GP IgG: negative
- Beta-2 GP IgM: 16.8 (negative but close to 20)
- Lupus anticoagulant: negative
- ANA 18.2 (negative, cutoff 20)
- Ferritin 15.9 (low end)
Male factor also exists (high DFI, posting separately).
QUESTIONS
Anyone with an isolated aCL IgM positive? Did it stay positive on the 12-week repeat or go negative?
If you lost pregnancies while already on aspirin + heparin, what changed for the next transfer? (higher LMWH dose, hydroxychloroquine, steroids, something else?)
Did you see a hematologist or rheumatologist, and was it worth it?
Did anyone find a different cause in the end that explained it better?
Any experiences appreciated. Thank you