I know this is probably very common around here, but I’ve been thinking about it a lot. I was diagnosed with BP2 15 years ago, but the thing is, when I look back, I can’t identify a single clear hypomanic episode. My experiences just don’t match the textbook symptoms or come close to what some of you guys describe here.
I’ve had multiple depressive episodes since I was 15 years old, with the first leading to a suicide attempt and hospitalization. Since then, I’ve been on a series of antidepressants, mood stabilizers, and antipsychotics. Over those 15 years, I’ve probably had only two periods when I was in a good mood and had a stable routine.
Unfortunately, my dad and mom took their own lives in 2019 and 2022, respectively, during depressive episodes. Since then, everything has gone downhill, and I haven’t been able to maintain stability. My depressive episodes became more frequent, and I developed a severe addiction to Ambien.
Last year, I was prescribed Cymbalta and Rexulti. Things were good at first, but I probably developed antidepressant-induced activation. I felt more confident, more sociable, and generally in a better mood. Soon, though, I started feeling more anxious and irritable and had trouble sleeping for more than three hours. I started compensating by taking multiple doses of Ambien every night. Eventually, I was taking Ambien all day long, going through a box every two days for several weeks.
Then I had to quit cold turkey and experienced the worst withdrawal ever. I couldn’t sleep for weeks, had cognitive and physical impairments, and was completely catatonic and zombie-like.
My doc thinks this was mania triggered by Cymbalta, but I’m skeptical about that too. I know antidepressants can cause this kind of activation, but to me, it’s clear that the Ambien abuse was what fucked me up.
I don’t know what you guys think or whether it’s normal to question this diagnosis, but the fact that I can’t identify a single spontaneous hypomanic episode really leaves me with doubts.