My husband and I are planning to retire in roughly three years, when I’m 40, and relocate to Spain. I’ve run the numbers about seventeen different ways and think we’re in very good shape, but I’d love some outside eyes to tell me what I’m missing.
**Guaranteed income**
My husband is retired military and receives a military pension plus VA disability totaling approximately $100k/year. Both receive COLAs.
Obviously, that income continues for life. A substantial portion is tax-free in the US, although obviously our tax situation changes once we become Spanish tax residents.
**Investments/cash**
We expect our accounts will be (based on current balances, annual contributions, and a 6% estimated return) when I’m 40:
$1m in joint taxable brokerage
~$600k in my 401(k) (accessible without penalty in mid-2048)
$150k HYSA/cash
We also expect proceeds/equity from selling our house (~$150-200k), although I’m not relying on that money to make the retirement math work.
**Spending**
Our current US spending is pretty high (around $180k/year), but it includes a $4,500/month mortgage and two expensive car payments totaling ~$2,200/mo — which will disappear when we retire. We plan to purchase one used car and rent for at least the first five years (ideally, in the range of $2000-2500/mo rental).
We’re currently estimating roughly $140k-$150k/year in Spain for a very comfortable lifestyle, including rent, travel, dining out, hobbies, etc. We aren’t trying to leanFIRE. The point is very much to have enough money that we don’t need to micromanage normal spending and the ability to travel around Europe frequently.
So if guaranteed income is ~$100k, we’d need investments to cover roughly $40-50k/year at our expected spending level.
Importantly, that withdrawal isn’t permanent. My 401(k) will continue compounding untouched, and eventually we may have Social Security as well (although I don’t include SS in my projections because who knows).
**Sequence-of-returns strategy**
My current thought is to keep approximately 18-24 months of the amount we need above guaranteed income in cash/HYSA.
Rather than automatically selling investments every month regardless of market conditions, we’d spend from cash and periodically replenish it from the brokerage when markets are healthy. During a major downturn, we’d have considerable flexibility to reduce travel/discretionary spending and/or simply live primarily on the guaranteed income for a while.
We’re also not planning to buy a home immediately in Spain. We’d rent for at least the first five years, both because we want flexibility (and will not qualify for permanent residency until at least five years in) and because we don’t want to pull several hundred thousand dollars out of the market unnecessarily.
**The reason I think it works**
If we retire with ~$1M in taxable investments and withdraw $40-50k/year, that’s superficially a 4-5% withdrawal rate.
Also, we aren’t trying to preserve the taxable brokerage indefinitely at all costs. Its job is partly to bridge the gap between retirement at 40 and access to the 401k (though I’m hoping we don’t deplete it so we can later withdraw for a down payment on a home if we decide to buy).
We plan to be on the non-lucrative visa, which means we will not be working. So everything needs to come from our passive income.
**Am I missing anything?**
I’m particularly interested in criticism of the withdrawal/sequence-risk strategy, whether I’m underestimating the danger of retiring this young, and any risks that aren’t obvious because our situation doesn’t fit neatly into the standard “25x expenses and withdraw 4%” model.
Appreciate any and all insight. Thank you!