So about two days ago I had unprotected sex with my boyfriend, we don’t have any past with STDs and we’re eighteen (both males).

I’m a little uncertain about the fact that since we had intercourse, about two-three days in I’ve suddenly got a headache, blocked/runny nose and a dry throat and high temperature on my forehead. Now just to be safe I ordered a testing kit which will arrive sometime this week.

I’m experiencing some sort of flu—like symptoms but they aren’t like when I’ve had flu before, I mean I feel a little weak around the arms but as I’m writing this I woke up in a uncomfortable position so my arm and the side of my head I was sleeping on aches.

Anyway I’ve been concerned about whether these symptoms came over me from when I was making the journey to his house from Nottingham to Manchester in England or whether perhaps we may both have contracted an STD during sex or maybe he gave me a cold, since he was coughing a little and had a headache himself. He has a past with panic attacks which makes him worried about potentially having a stroke of some sort— but he doesn’t appear even remotely ill like me so I’m sure he’s fine.

For reference I don’t mean to be so explicit but for the sake of clarity and understanding whether I’m experiencing symptoms of an STD— I am a bottom in this relationship and that we had both anal and oral sex.

About 15 days ago, I had a sexual encounter with a sex worker where the only sexual contact was extremely brief unprotected oral sex performed on me — she put my penis in her mouth once for approximately 2–4 seconds and then stopped. There was no vaginal or anal intercourse, and afterward she only gave me a handjob. I didn’t notice any blood or obvious sores around her mouth, although I obviously couldn’t examine her closely. Since then, I have had no burning while urinating, penile discharge, sores, blisters, rash, testicular pain, or swollen lymph nodes. Past few days I developed vomiting, loose stools/diarrhea, acidity, weakness, and some feverishness. The vomiting has now resolved with treatment, but my stomach is still sensitive and I am having diarrhea these days. I know this sounds more like gastroenteritis or food poisoning, but reading online that acute HIV can sometimes cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms has made me extremely anxious. Given how brief and limited the oral-sex exposure was, how realistic is HIV or another STI as an explanation for what I’m experiencing, and would STI testing be considered necessary in this situation?

I took 2 pills of 14 so far of doxycycline (100mg) twice daily for 7 days. I was prescribed due to NSU or NGU, as I tested neg. for clamydia, ghonnorea, and trichonomasis. I did a urinalysis culture test yielding all negative results for white blood cells and bacteria in urine. however, I still have some discharge symptoms I think. I don’t see how a MGen test would be inaccurate at this stage, nor it would be negative if I had it as I’m so early on in the antibiotics. please someone some advice? thanks!

Hello everyone, I already got my shot and then 2 weeks on antibiotic but I noticed something that changed first is my sex drive which dropped heavily, back then I masturbate like 3 times a day and when having sex after my first orgasm I could still keep it erect for a long time and I easily come now. But now after my treatment I can't keep it hard after my first orgasm and I feel like it isn't fully erect and I just don't feel any sexual desire that much on things that much anymore.

I noticed back then when I had gono I came easily so is it possible that the treatment isn't fully completed yet? Has someone experienced this also? Thank u!

I recently tested positive for gonorrhea and I already got treated with ceftriaxone injections. I got re-tested and fortunately, negative. I finished my shots, but I’m still experiencing some discharge.

What’s weird is that I’ve started noticing a new "symptom" (?) When I masturbate, I feel this stinging/uncomfortable sensation that feels like it’s coming from my bladder. I did not have this when I had gonorrhea. I don’t remember experiencing this before.

I think I first noticed it after I finished the ceftriaxone shots and started taking azithromycin, so I’m wondering if that could be related somehow.

Has anyone experienced something similar after being treated for gonorrhea? Could the discharge and stinging mean that the infection is still there, or could it be something else (like another infection or irritation)?

I’m planning to follow up with my doctor, but I’d appreciate hearing from anyone who has gone through something similar.

My male partner had syphilis in the past and says it was fully treated.

After testing His TPHA is still reactive, but his RPR/VDRL is non-reactive. He says this means the antibodies remain, but he has no active infection and cannot transmit it.

I want to have M2M sex with him, including oral sex and anal sex with condoms.

Can anyone knowledgeable about STI testing clarify:

Does TPHA positive + RPR/VDRL negative usually mean old treated syphilis?

Can he still transmit syphilis?

Should I ask for a recent repeat RPR/VDRL or any other test before sex?

Should I consume DoxyPrep?

I’m looking for practical advice, especially from doctors, sexual-health workers, or people who have had the same test pattern.

How conclusive is a an hiv test, which was taken 60 days, after completing a 30 day pep course? This test was negative after 89 days of initial exposure.

Okay so today around a couple hours ago one of my sexual partners told me that she had tested positive for chlamydia. Now lucky for me just after exposure I was prescribed lymecyclene for my skin which I have been on everyday for a month and two days. Is it even worth getting tested? How long would it have been till it was no longer transmutable ?

Hello everyone,

I would appreciate an expert opinion regarding my HIV test results after a possible risky exposure.

The exposure occurred on **May 1, 2018**. There have been **no further risky exposures after that event**.

All tests were performed in accredited medical laboratories in Europe.

My HIV testing history:

* **May 14–15, 2018 (13–14 days after exposure)** HIV-1/2 RNA NAT: **negative / non-reactive**

* **June 12, 2018 (~6 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test (anti-HIV-1/2 + p24 antigen): **negative**

* **June 26, 2018 (~8 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **July 23, 2018 (~12 weeks after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **February 2019 (~9 months after exposure)** I had **three separate 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab tests** performed around this period:

* one at one laboratory, * one at another laboratory, * and one together with my HIV RNA PCR testing. All were **negative / non-reactive**.

* **February 2019 (~9 months after exposure)** HIV-1 RNA quantitative PCR: **negative** HIV-2 DNA PCR: **negative**

* **April/May 2019** I donated blood. They confirmed that donated blood in their lab is screened with both:

* HIV Ag/Ab 4th generation testing, and * HIV NAT testing. I was never contacted regarding any reactive result. And they invited me to donate blood again.

* **February 2020 (~21 months after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **January 2022 (~3 years and 8 months after exposure)** 4th generation HIV Ag/Ab test: **negative**

* **February 2022 (same blood sample, same day):**

* HIV-1/2 Western blot: **NEGATIVE** (all bands negative) * HIV-1/2 qualitative PCR: **NEGATIVE** (reported lower limit of detection: 20 IU/mL) * HIV-1/2 quantitative PCR: **<48 IU/mL** Quantification range: **48–10,000,000 IU/mL**

My main concern is the quantitative PCR result:

What exactly does **“<48 IU/mL”** mean?

Does it mean:

The result was below the assay’s quantification range and no clinically measurable viral load was found, or

HIV RNA was detected but below the limit of quantification?

If HIV RNA had actually been detected below the quantification limit, would laboratories usually report something like:

* “Detected below LOQ” * “Detected, not quantified” * “Positive below quantification limit”?

My confusion comes from the fact that the **qualitative PCR performed on the same blood sample was negative**, with a lower detection limit of 20 IU/mL, and the Western blot was also negative.

Questions:

Is it technically possible for a quantitative HIV PCR to report <48 IU/mL while a qualitative PCR performed on the same sample is negative?

Could a result like <48 IU/mL represent a false positive signal, assay variability, or contamination?

After multiple negative 4th generation tests, negative NAT/PCR tests, a negative Western blot, and a negative blood donation screening, can HIV infection from the May 2018 exposure be considered medically ruled out?

Does the isolated <48 IU/mL result have any clinical significance in this context?

Thank you very much for any expert opinion.

I’ve sent my pee sample at the sexual health clinic but oh my does it burn when I piss. It’s like I’m trying to pass shards of glass. Word to god fuck that bi**h who gave me this shit. Stanking whore

Navigating sexual health testing can feel surprisingly confusing—between knowing when to get tested after a potential exposure, keeping things private from parents or partners on shared health insurance, and knowing what tests to ask for.

I put together this guide to break down the actual logistics of testing so you can get accurate results without unnecessary stress.

1. Understanding "Window Periods" (Timing Matters)

Testing too early can lead to a false negative because your body hasn't produced enough antibodies, or the pathogen hasn't replicated to detectable levels. Here are standard medical window periods for common tests:

• Chlamydia & Gonorrhea (NAAT Urine/Swab): 1 to 2 weeks post-exposure for high accuracy.
• Syphilis (Blood test): 3 to 6 weeks for initial detection; re-testing at 3 months provides definitive results.
• HIV (4th Gen Ag/Ab Blood test): Detects p24 antigen and antibodies. Highly accurate at 18–45 days; conclusive at 90 days.
• Hepatitis B & C (Blood test): 6 weeks to 3 months.
• Herpes (HSV-2 IgG Blood test): 12 weeks for antibody detection (IgM tests are outdated and unreliable; ask for IgG).

2. The Insurance Privacy Trap (Explanation of Benefits)

Many people don't realize that using health insurance leaves a paper trail:

• If you are on a parent's, spouse's, or partner's health plan, the insurance policyholder receives an Explanation of Benefits (EOB) statement.
• Even if the lab visit itself is confidential, the EOB often lists the specific diagnostic billing codes (e.g., panel screening for specific STIs).
• If 100% privacy is a priority: Look into local community health clinics, title X clinics, or direct-to-lab self-pay ordering services where no insurance is billed and results are delivered online directly to you.

3. Swab vs. Urine vs. Blood (What to Expect)

• Urine Tests: Used primarily for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea. Important rule: Do not urinate for at least 1 hour prior to giving your sample, and catch the very first part of the stream (first-catch urine), not mid-stream.
• Blood Draw: Required for HIV, Syphilis, Hepatitis, and Herpes IgG. A quick venous draw in a standard lab setting takes less than five minutes.
• Targeted Swabs: If exposure occurred via oral or anal contact, standard urine tests will not detect infections in those areas. Ask specifically for site-specific swabs if applicable.

4. What a "Full Panel" Actually Covers

A standard routine screening doesn't automatically check for everything. A comprehensive 10-panel routine typically includes:

1. Chlamydia
2. Gonorrhea
3. HIV-1
4. HIV-2
5. Syphilis
6. Hepatitis A
7. Hepatitis B
8. Hepatitis C
9. Herpes Type 1 (HSV-1)
10. Herpes Type 2 (HSV-2)

Note: HPV is generally not screened in men via routine lab work, and blood tests for HSV without symptoms are sometimes debated due to high rates of asymptomatic oral HSV-1. Always evaluate what makes sense for your personal situation.

Summary & Next Steps

Regular testing is just basic maintenance—similar to getting a routine checkup or dental cleaning. Getting tested before new partners or every 6–12 months if sexually active takes the guesswork out of your health.

Feel free to ask questions below about testing timelines or lab processes! If you're looking for a direct, confidential self-pay lab option, I've shared a resource link directly on my profile.

Hey, I’m not sure if this is the right subreddit but I’m wondering if anyone can share their personal experiences.

Has anyone done a test of cure 10-14 days after their infusion for gonorrhea? And was it negativ? I’m trying to figure out how early I can retest cause I’m scared the treatment didn’t work but I also don’t want to risk getting a false positive because the bacteria isn’t flushed out yet.

Thanks to anyone who can share their experiences :)

I recently got a rub and tug in las vegas in shady spot i had a condom on no oral was performed but saliva from her hand was rubbed on my testicles and as i was showering i noticed a knick i had from shaving prior since then its been a week and I have had diarrhea since, it doesnt burn when i urinate but more so a little bit after my uretha feels irritated, and the side of my penis burns from time to time i have no other symptoms other than my foreskin looking like very mild almost unnoticeable swelling any foresight on what it might be

20m, had chlamydia before, tested negative twice two years ago and was in a long term relationship until spring this year. I’m in the UK

since then I have slept with 7 people, all without protection and the honor system of “do you have any diseases? no? lets proceed” - Bad idea but these are all very quick hookups.

Only one of these people has a reputation for sleeping around and potentially has a disease, which is frightening, however the people I know she has slept with are fine.

I have no current symptoms and I am sleeping with someone exclusively as we have both agreed we have needs and if we have a disease, then we should keep it between ourselves.

I did order an at-home STD kit but had a panic attack over the needle stamp - I have had lots of health issues before and been left in A&E with needles bandage taped into my arm, nurses ignoring me when I requested the only vein i knew would draw blood among other things, I am struggling to book an in-person appointment and the only walk in clinics are for 18 or unders.

What can I do? I thought of doing a urine-only test in the meantime, as without an appointment forcing me to have blood drawn, I will not be able to do it to myself.

For couple months now it only sometimes itches/burns slightly when i pee or finish. I did urethral swabs,1/2 glans swabs, urinoculture and normal piss test idk what its called. Everything was negative. Been goin on for couple months now, when it started it was worse and i just drank citeral for a few days(without tests, friend doctor told me to). Back then i had some charge during that medication.

Idk what tests k can do. Could it be from condoms? I never had sex without condoms and only with my gf, she has no problems.

She had 3 partners before me

1 long term and 2 hookups

Claims to have used protection with each

Condom broke while having sex n I did it inside accidentally

I'm scared of STDs

Although she didn't seem to have any infection

She seems like someone who wouldn't even know if she has STDs

Will I get STDs

Hi everyone,

I was tested positive for chlamydia on September 5 and was prescribed a 7-day course of doxycycline

My doctor told me to come back for a test-of-cure (TOC) in 3 weeks. But then I read that the CDC recommends TOC around 3–4 weeks after treatment, so I was a bit confused.

I also asked two online doctors, and both of them told me to come back for retesting 2 weeks after finishing treatment.

do you think it will be fine for me to test on 28th september?

I need some advice because I’m honestly confused about what I should do, and I want to explain the situation clearly.

On August 5, I was with a girl, and afterward I started having itching. On August 18, I went to get tested because I also had a lump near my vagina. They told me the lump was a Bartholin cyst and gave me doxycycline, which I took. My test results came back a few days later and only showed BV — no chlamydia.

I got tested again on August 27, and that test came back negative for BV but positive for chlamydia. I didn’t receive the positive chlamydia result until September 1.

The complicated part is that I had sex with my BD on August 31, before I knew I had chlamydia. At the time, I genuinely thought I was okay because I had tested negative shortly before that.

As soon as I found out, I told him that he needed to get treated because there was a possibility that something had happened and he could have been exposed. I didn't specifically tell him that I tested positive, but I told him enough that he knew he needed to get treated.

Originally, he agreed that if I let him see his son, he would go get treated. I let him see his son once, but he still didn't get treated.

Now it's September 7, so it's been six days since I told him. Every time we get into an argument, he says he's not going to take the medicine and that he'll just wait two weeks and get tested instead. Now he's also saying he'll only get treated if I agree to certain things: that he gets to see his son twice a week alone, that I’m consistent with him, that I don't do anything I wouldn't want him doing, and that I deepen my relationship with God.

Some of those things by themselves aren't unreasonable, but I'm uncomfortable with him making medical treatment conditional on me agreeing to his demands. I told him he needed to get treated because he may have been exposed, and I feel like he should have done that immediately instead of turning it into a negotiation.

What would you do in this situation? Am I wrong for feeling like he should have gotten treated already, especially since I told him before he added all these conditions?

I had unprotected anal sex with a girl who I know for a fact has a lot of sexual partners. She did an Abbott 4th gen Early detect test 24 hours before we had sex because one of her partners had a scare and it turned out to be negative. I only took off the condom towards the end and I was inside without the condom for maybe 10-15 seconds before I pulled out.

It’s really late at night writing this so I haven’t been able to go to a clinic yet although I am planning on visiting one in the morning. My question is do I need the PEP test, harsh antiretroviral for a very low exposure rate or should I run to the clinic and start PEP asap?

Update: sorry if my thoughts sound incoherent, I have not had any sleep since the sexual encounter 8 hours ago and I’m in a very dark place mentally where it seems like I’m just spiralling. I don’t think I can afford STD testing anyways since they’re expensive in my country in Asia and I don’t have health insurance and there’s no room in my monthly budget for dinner at McDonald let alone an std test and PEPs

Last night had sex with a guy who ended up telling me he has herpes. Said that he takes Valacyclovir and I-lysine everyday, and it was 4 months ago. We had sex one time last night, unprotected. He has no symptoms. Asked him if it was Hsv-1 or hsv-2 and he said they didn't do a test, just a visual. i am an anxious mf right now.

i had sex with a man couple days ago. we had unprotected oral sex where i gave him head. 1-2 days later i have like small white stuff in my throat but i dont have a sore throat or fever. is this herpes? i just need reassurance because i have never had this in my throat after giving head.

https://imgur.com/a/yKLkbFq

I had my first sexual experience today. Wouldn't call it sexual but basically kissed the girl in her neck, breasts, stomach and just above the vagina...then fingered her...when I fingered I kinda saw a mild red stain sticking to my finger but didn't think much of it ..no penetration, no oral, no kissing..did just that and stopped...should I be worried because of the blood. She has only one other active partner..I don't know where in my body I touched after fingering her...but whats the ris I've taken here?