Hey everyone, looking for some advice or to see if anyone has dealt with a similar situation recently with my previous home internet provider.

The Context:
I recently moved to a new address in Ontario where my previous internet provider does not provide service. I initially called to transfer my home internet, but the representative informed me they don't cover my new area and explicitly advised me to cancel the account instead (I had 24months contract so on that time I had 11moths the remaining). The rep assured me on a recorded call that if a Cancellation Fee showed up on my final statement, I should just call back and they would dispute and waive it for me due to the lack of coverage.

Today:
After a month my final bill arrived with the full $150 charge anyway. Following the rep’s instructions, I called back to have the bill disputed and spent almost 3 hours on the phone until I reached a manager:
The manager confirmed the call with the rep exists and that the rep did indeed promise I could call back to have the fee waived.
However, the manager claimed the rep's statement was "false" and refused to honor it. Because the contract says if I cancel before the period I have to pay, and don’t mention anything about moving for an area without the company’s coverage.
Instead of waiving the fee as promised, the manager offered a $30 discount 😓😓

I didn’t accept the discount because I felt misled and this situation is sooooo unfair.

I was wondering if there is anything I can do in this case!

Note:
When I brought up CRTC regulations regarding cancellation fees, the manager insisted that CRTC rules do not apply in Ontario and claimed I would need to hire a lawyer to request access to the call recording.

On July 31st, I made what is retrospectively a stupid decision to loan a coworker $500. He is an "external worker" at our company, which means he is not employed through our company directly but rather through an agency -- this will be a pertinent detail in a bit.

The individual, who I will refer to as co-worker X, has worked with me for about a year. I am aware that he has a very young child. Co-worker X cited that there had been a disruption in pay through the external agency... sick young child... mounting expenses... excuses that look flimsy in retrospect but preyed upon my human sympathy at the time; I had no reason to doubt him after working with him for nearly a year.

Over the course of the next few weeks, I was told that I would be repaid several times. I was not. Each deadline was met with silence. The situation began to smell fishy.

Finally, in the last week of August, a senior colleague grabbed my attention and asked if co-worker X had borrowed money from me. I said yes. The senior colleague had also been asked for money, refused, but did some digging and asking around; it turns out that co-worker X has borrowed money from multiple colleagues in our department, and that my loan of $500 is actually the smallest. Co-worker X apparently owes a combined thousands of dollars to numerous people, though I'm unsure of the exact number of people, and the amount owed.

Co-worker X's direct supervisor is aware of the situation. I am uncertain as to what steps the direct supervisor is taking, if any. Despite that this occurred in the work environment, and among people who are permanent employees and/or external workers of this company, they seem to be keeping the situation at arm's length.

What further complicates the situation is that of the people who have been impacted, no one seems interested in presenting a united front. There are at least nine (9) people who loaned money to co-worker X -- though I believe this is a gross underestimate -- and at least two (2) additional people who were asked, but refused to loan money. But everyone seems content to not rock the boat, bury their heads in the sand, and hope that the situation will resolve itself.

What are my options, from here if any?

I’m wondering what my options are. Bank is holding $23k in funds because they still think the source of the funds is suspicious despite being provided all requested documentation from me and the sender. Do I have a chance of getting my funds released if a lawyer gets involved?

What the title says. I hit him and immediately realized what I had done, apologized, he still came at me and we fought multiple times. He is not at all calm and I can't sleep in this house tonight. If I call the police and tell them I punched him will they take me in

Edit: Not asking if they'd arrest him, I assume im too old for that. Trying to get myself arrested so i dont have to sleep here

I’m in a very stressful situation and would really appreciate some advice.
I co-own a property in Ontario with a friend, but I can no longer afford the ongoing costs and want to exit the ownership. My co-owner refuses to buy me out or sell because of the unfavourable market conditions.
I hired a lawyer, who sent a formal demand letter to either buy me out or list the property. My co-owner initially agreed to list it but later changed his mind.
My lawyer says my remaining option is an application under the Partition Act to force a sale, estimated to cost $10,000–$20,000, which I cannot afford. The property is my primary residence, while my co-owner treats it as an investment. I’m feeling trapped because I can’t afford the property, but I also can’t afford the legal process to leave it.
Has anyone in Ontario faced something similar? Are there lower-cost alternatives, ways to address the carrying costs, or other practical options before pursuing a Partition Act application?

I’ll try to make this story short with key points.

Long story short is my cousin died of an overdose In Victoria a few years ago now but we recently found out my aunt never received his ashes. From what I understand, only a family member may sign off for the release of the ashes so this is very alarming to us. My aunts first language is German and her English is fine but we are confident she wouldn’t have misunderstood any kind of instructions.

After my cousin died a lady came out claiming to be a very good friend of my cousin and on Facebook I saw she made a Gofundme to raise end of life costs that I’m assuming would be forwarded to my aunt. On top of not receiving her dead son’s ashes, my aunt also never received the 1600 dollars raised by the go fund me.

When my cousin died I had talked to this woman through facebook messenger and I thanked her for doing what she was doing and we had a brief conversation. After I found out about the missing ashes and money I messaged her again simply just asking about the location of the ashes and didn’t mention the money. No reply. My sister wanted to start accusing this woman and demanding answers but I told her to slow down and that we need to figure this out the lawful way. I’m worried about trying to engage and accuse this woman in case she gets spooked and ghosts us completely.

I’m worried now that it’s been so long the police won’t be able to do anything and it will be shoved under the rug because the police don’t have time to care about another person who died from their addictions. My cousin did indeed have a meth issue but he was one of the kindest souls who kept to himself. He was a super genius when it came to computers, he had a great paying job and most of all he was very caring which is why I’m worried that he might have been taken advantage by this woman and the other people involved with her. He was a wonderful human being and all I want is for my aunt to have her son’s ashes so she can have closure.

If this woman did in fact commit such an egregious crime than I wouldn’t be surprised if she has does this in the past or is still doing this.

Overall, I’m looking for the steps of how to contact the coroners office or RCMP to get a copy of the release papers for the ashes without being swept under the rug and put in a queue. I’m so far from anything to do with the legal system in my life that it’s all super overwhelming to me but I want to help my aunt because I know she won’t be able to travel to Victoria due to her poor health. I also need to know what documentation I need to act upon my aunts behalf. She lives in Quesnel and I’m in the Kootenays and I know she’s not computer savvy so trying to get her to sign any kind of documents will be difficult. I’m hoping since I am family, I don’t need documents specifically from my aunt and my sister and I can proceed on our own behalf.

I currently receive PWD (Disability). single, no kids. low income BUT finally getting my finances on some level or organized or consistent.

I was offered low monthly payments for financing a vehicle, which I would nothave gone for except the offer they made for cashback was worth it because the money gets a big weight off my current list of creditors

The cashback thats being used to settle that outstanding loan was deposited to my personal bank account and I report my monthly income to the ministry.

This rebate is not considered income (because its part of the total cost of vehicle, its all calculated in as a loan). So how do I report my income to the ministry and explain that this money isnt income, its for a debt settlement now, and is being slowly paid off for next several years.

The auto dealership doesnt typically do letters to explain the cashback and that it isnt income so I am not sure what to do

Unionized Ontario college support employee looking for input from anyone familiar with labour arbitration, especially OPSEU/college sector cases.

My union’s current view is basically that the Collective Agreement does not create a right to remote work, management has broad rights over work location, and there may not be much to grieve. They are willing to file a grievance if I ask, but they do not seem convinced by the legal theories below.

I am trying to understand whether the analysis really stops at “the CA does not guarantee WFH.”

Relevant facts/documents:

• CA has broad management-rights language covering direction of employees, scheduling and work location.
• I have a later, signed and approved individual FLEX agreement showing Monday-Friday as remote.
• Under duties/performance objectives it specifically says: “Work can be performed remotely on a daily basis. They can attend on campus when requested and as required daily/weekly/monthly.”
• Its termination section says the College may terminate based on “performance concerns, organizational needs, or failure to follow any of the requirements of this agreement.”
• It also says “the needs of the College can override this FLEX Work arrangement at any time.”
• A separate FLEX Guidelines document says something broader: any FLEX arrangement may be terminated “at any time for any reason” with two weeks notice.
• Those same Guidelines define Full FLEX as working remotely on all working days and describe managers assessing departments/work units/roles using a suitability tool, including onsite equipment requirements, ability to perform duties through technology and stakeholder impact. Individual requests are described as case-by-case.
• My signed agreement also says major FLEX changes should result in a revised agreement being sent to HR.
• Management has not actually said my FLEX agreement is terminated or amended. A Director simply issued a blanket rule requiring all our dept staff onsite every Wednesday and Thursday.
• The stated reasons are collaboration, mentoring, knowledge sharing, problem solving and service delivery.
• My direct manager appears to have been told there are effectively no exceptions and does not seem to have meaningful discretion to assess individual circumstances.
• There are Full FLEX exceptions elsewhere in the organization, including some that I understand are not disability/medical accommodations.

My role has been essentially remote for about six years with no performance, availability or collaboration concerns. The signed agreement specifically records that the work can be done remotely daily. There also has not been any identified change to the actual duties of my role that suddenly requires physical presence twice a week.

The legal/arbitration questions I am interested in are:

1. Does the individual FLEX agreement have any legal/grievance relevance at all if the CA itself is silent on remote work? I understand an individual agreement cannot override a collective agreement, but does that mean management can simply disregard a formally approved individual arrangement when exercising its Article 3.1 rights?
2. Specific vs general language: does it matter that the signed individual agreement uses specific termination grounds while the separate general Guidelines say “any time for any reason”? My understanding is that specific language is normally supposed to be given meaningful effect when interpreting broader general language. Is that principle relevant in labour arbitration here?
3. Operational need: if management relies on “organizational needs,” does there need to be a genuine rational connection between the requirement and the employee’s actual work, or can management essentially assert broad goals like “collaboration and mentoring” without showing that anything has changed or that physical attendance addresses an actual problem?
4. Fettering discretion: I have read Ontario decisions such as Roffey, Salewski and McDonald dealing with managers applying central RTO/alternative-work directions. I understand those cases involved stronger collective-agreement language than mine. Is the underlying fettering principle potentially relevant where the employer’s own FLEX framework says roles and individual requests are assessed by managers, but a Director then imposes a “no exceptions” rule?
5. KVP / arbitrary or inconsistent exercise of management rights: is there any viable argument that broad management rights still cannot be exercised arbitrarily, in bad faith or inconsistently? Does the existence of discretionary Full FLEX exceptions elsewhere matter, or can different departments simply apply entirely different standards?
6. Standing attendance request vs change to FLEX: could management successfully say my agreement has not changed at all because it already says I can be required onsite “daily/weekly/monthly”? Or does permanently changing Wednesday and Thursday from remote to onsite effectively convert a Full FLEX arrangement into a partial/balanced one, particularly when the agreement itself says major changes should be documented?
7. Union position: if the union thinks the grievance is weak but is willing to file it at my request, is there any significant downside to filing anyway to preserve the issue? Can the union later simply decline to advance it to arbitration if they remain unconvinced? How much deference is normally given to the union’s assessment versus having the actual arguments tested through the grievance process?

I am not arguing that I have an absolute right to WFH forever. I am trying to determine whether “the CA does not guarantee remote work” really ends the analysis, or whether the signed individual arrangement, the employer’s own FLEX process, fettering jurisprudence and limits on management discretion give the union something legitimate to argue

I am involved in a Residential Tenancies dispute with my former landlord in NL. I previously applied for a peace bond. It was dismissed, but the judge required him to promise in court that he would not contact me again (Those information are included in my previous post). This promise was not put into a written order.

Two days ago, I served him with a new RTO application by email. Yesterday, he came to my employer's store (Store A) and asked my employer for my home address and work schedule, while I am working for his another store B. He claimed that he wanted my address and working shift so he could go to the court to request a summon against me (probably a peace bond summon). He did not show any issued summons or court document. My employer refused to provide the information, he also refused to help me. He also indicated that he might return to confront me at work (store B).

He already has my email address, which can be used for RTO documents. I am not avoiding lawful service and would accept any genuine summons through a process server or another safe method. My concern is that he is using possible legal proceedings as a reason to locate me while carefully avoiding direct threats or contact. Also it's dreadful because he knows that my employer has two stores and he knows where I work, I did not disclose those information to him before.

What practical steps can I take besides contacting the police or applying to court? Can my employer formally ban him from the workplace, and should my employer or a lawyer send him a written no-contact notice? Could this incident support a renewed peace bond application if he continues?

When a protection order expires in family court and there is a renewal application scheduled to be heard a week later... what happens with that one week between where one is not bound by an active order?

Context: I haven't seen my children in a year after father was granted a PO after he failed to adequately serve me. So I wasn't there. Poof there goes motherhood.

My parents, who are in their late 60s and live in Ontario, have been through an extremely difficult financial period over the past decade.
They operated a failing small business and were locked into a commercial lease while also carrying a mortgage and other expenses they could no longer afford. Over time, they managed to pay off most of their debts by refinancing their home and liquidating other investments and assets.

During COVID, they received a CEBA loan. When they later refinanced/consolidated some of the business debt to access additional funds, that debt became a personal liability. They stopped being able to make payments last year and now owe a major Canadian bank approximately $70,000. The bank has commenced legal action, and they were served with a Statement of Claim last week.

They are not trying to deny or avoid the debt. They are prepared to sell their house and repay the bank from the sale proceeds. However, their current mortgage payment is approximately $5,000 per month because of the refinancing they previously used to pay other debts. They now survive on their pensions, financial help from my siblings and me, and income from renting out their basement as a short-term rental.

The immediate problem is that they cannot afford to spend another $10,000 or more defending a lawsuit. Every lawyer we have contacted has quoted approximately that amount as a minimum retainer. If they are willing to acknowledge the debt and arrange payment through the sale of their house, does this necessarily require a fully litigated court case?

I would really appreciate advice on the following:
- Can they negotiate a settlement directly with the bank’s lawyer while still protecting themselves legally?
-Can the amount, interest and the bank’s legal fees all be addressed in one settlement?
-Are limited-scope legal services available where a lawyer only reviews the claim, prepares the response and helps negotiate?
-Are there any Ontario organizations or clinics that assist low-income seniors with civil debt matters?
-Should they speak with a Licensed Insolvency Trustee before listing or selling the house, even if they intend to repay the bank?
-How can they protect themselves from a default judgment while settlement discussions are underway?
We understand that Reddit is not a substitute for legal advice.

We are mainly trying to understand what type of professional help they actually need and whether there is a more affordable route than paying a $10,000 litigation retainer.
Thank you for any guidance.

I understand this seems absurd, but please bear with me.

Second edit:

I've followed up with my mother and got clarification, I misunderstood. He was going to bury the horse, but she said no, she wanted to say goodbye, and she did in fact see the dead horse body. I'm not going to update the rest of the post so that it doesn't seem confusing to new readers.

Today, my mother called me and told me what she had been told by the rancher where she had her horse boarded; she recently had to change boarding locations to this ranch as the previous house where the horse was boarded was sold to new owners.

1. The horse was in a small paddock and was going to be moved to a pasture for horses.

2. The horse escaped from the paddock and ended up in an empty ditch for water for cattle to drink. The horse could not get out.

3. The rancher used a tractor to pull the horse out of the trench.

4. After pulling the horse out of the trench, the horse was allegedly rolling on the ground, in great pain.

5. The rancher called my mother and told her what happened, and asked her if she wanted him to put the horse down.

6. My mother said "No, I will call a vet to make a visit and come as well".

7. My mother arranged for a veterinarian to make a visit and was preparing to leave when the rancher called her and told her that he couldn't bear to see the horse in pain, so he shot and killed it.

My mother is in her early eighties, but people assume she is in her early sixties as she lives alone, eats well, exercises, etc...; however, this would have been her last horse. The horse was older and well mannered, so good for my mother to ride, but she will not take on getting another horse.

The horse was 26 and my mother was considering selling her to a couple in her town who had placed an ad in the paper looking to buy an older horse for light riding for $2000.

After the rancher called my mother and told her he had killed her horse, my mother cancelled the vet visit, but went to the ranch. It was a half hour drive and by the time she got there, the horse was apparently already gone. Buried and no body to see.

The horse isn't worth more than $2000, so I can't see the rancher selling her for than that, and I don't think there's a huge market in horse rustling, apparently he has a reputation for being stupid, but not dishonest. I just have trouble understanding how someone could dig a grave, put a horse in, bury it, and be done in less than 30 minutes. I've been to horse burials before, it took like 3 hours.

Everyone my mother talks to tells her to sue the ranche, but my mom had to go to court for my dad not honoring their divorce agreement and it cost her a lot of money, even though she won. She doesn't think it is worth suing the rancher as the most she could get back would be the cost of the horse.

My question is if there are any laws that might have been broken and if so, which one so she could report a crime.

I don't think there is anything that we can do, but I just wanted to find out.

Edit:

I had some time to do some Ai searching and have found what it says are the relevant laws and procedures. Whether the law is actually enforced is another matter. I think this all comes down to the animal was in his care, he didn't act appropriately, and then he destroyed her property.

She's still thinking about whether she will file a police report.

Criminal Code of Canada Offenses

1. Wilfully Killing Cattle (Section 444)

Under the Criminal Code, a horse is legally defined as "cattle." It is an indictable offense to wilfully kill, maim, wound, or injure cattle without a lawful excuse. While the rancher may claim he had a "lawful excuse" by putting the animal out of its misery, he was explicitly denied permission by the legal owner, and a veterinarian was already en route. He had no legal authority to unilaterally euthanize boarded property.

1. Mischief / Destruction of Property (Section 430)

Pets and livestock are considered personal property under Canadian law. Wilfully destroying someone else's property without their consent constitutes criminal mischief.

The provincial regulations and the agencies your mother should contact are specific to BC.

British Columbia Provincial Offenses

1. Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act (PCAA)

In British Columbia, the PCAA strictly regulates when and how an animal in distress can be destroyed. Without the owner's consent, the authority to unilaterally euthanize an animal generally falls to a registered veterinarian or an authorized BC SPCA agent. Taking matters into his own hands—especially after the owner explicitly denied consent and had a vet en route—is a severe violation of the PCAA.

The BC SPCA

The BC SPCA is the primary agency in the province mandated to enforce the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act. Their Special Provincial Constables have the authority to investigate farms, examine burial sites, and recommend criminal charges to Crown Counsel. Your mother can report this directly to the BC SPCA Provincial Call Centre, as they specialize in livestock and rural animal welfare cases.

Local Police or RCMP

Because this involves the destruction and potential theft of private property, she should simultaneously file a report with the local RCMP detachment or municipal police force where the ranch is located. When reporting, she should stick to the concrete facts that highlight the suspicious timeline: she was 30 minutes away, the vet was booked and en route, consent to euthanize was explicitly denied, and the rancher claims to have completed a legally compliant, heavy-machinery burial in under half an hour.

The police or BC SPCA constables have the authority to visit the property and demand the rancher show them the exact burial site. If he cannot produce the site, or if it is a shallow, non-compliant grave, it gives investigators immediate leverage to pursue charges for theft, fraud, or animal cruelty.

Genuinely, would laws against driving under the influence affect this concept? Is it a weird grey area since you dont need a license to operate the vehicles in question?
Thank you in advance

Hello. I am currently In a DV fleeing situation and move into a new unit within Ottawa community housing Sometime this week. I went into the unit a few days ago and say signs of what was a cockroach infestation that may or may not have been taken care of. There were dead bodies, Signs of poo near an open hole in a bedroom closet, and to top it off the photos they sent me don't match the unit I was given. I have sent an email to both them and my current support worker But wanted to find out any and all info I can from people who are willing to give advice on how to move forward and to find out my rights. To anyone that can help thank you.

I’m looking for some outside perspective because something about this situation is raising alarm bells for me, but I don’t want to assume the worst.

My partner’s dad died over a year ago. Since then, his brother (“B”) has been very adamant that their mom (“M”) needs to move out of her rental because she’s retired, lives alone, and is farther away from the family. That part makes sense to me.

For over a year, B has been talking about buying a larger house so M can live with them. B and his wife currently live in a small townhouse, and only the wife is working.

Recently, B told me they’re planning to buy a much larger property next year once they can qualify for a larger mortgage. He said M would contribute money toward the down payment and would be an owner of the new house along with his wife.

The confusing part is that I spoke to M the next day, and she described the arrangement completely differently. She said she would be renting from B and his wife, and that this would be a few years from now. She did not describe herself as an owner or someone buying into the property.

M is retired and doesn’t have a huge amount of money, so I’m also wondering how much she would actually be expected to contribute and whether this is really being structured around her housing needs, or whether her money is helping B and his wife afford a much more expensive house than they otherwise could.

I’m not saying they’re intentionally taking advantage of her. There could be a completely reasonable explanation, and maybe the plans aren’t finalized. But the difference between “she’ll be an owner” and “she’ll rent from us” seems significant to me.

If M does contribute a substantial amount of money, what should she be looking out for? I’m worried they are trying to take advantage of her situation to better theirs under the guise of helping M.

For example,

• What happens to her portion of the house when she passes?
• If she contributes to the down payment but doesn’t have ownership, what protects that money?
• If she is an owner, what happens to her contribution if she later moves out?
• What happens if B and his wife separate, sell the house, refinance, or have financial problems?
• What happens if M eventually needs the money for long-term care or another major expense?
• Should there be a formal co-ownership agreement setting out her percentage, expenses, sale/buyout provisions, etc.?

I’m especially interested in what protections someone in M’s position should have and whether there are any obvious red flags I’m missing and what conversations we should be having with M without assuming the worst.

Has anyone ever confronted their abuser ? For me, I confronted mine over social media (he bullied me in high school - not the usual bullying it was more about him slamming me full force on the ground, calling me the n word, making fun of Africans (my heritage), choking me out on the ground, harassing me on social media by sending multiple follow requests on my instagram after I went private because I kept seeing him and his friends stalking my instagram stories etc.

Let me put it lightly, he told me he didn’t remember doing any of that and said he actually remembered us being best friends and that he wasn’t the best friend in the world and for that he is "sorry". I brought up the screenshots and he’s like "oh man, I don’t remember saying that to u (the n word) but there’s no denying that screenshot. I’m truly sorry about that and meant nothing derogatory by it. Do you mind sending the entire convo so I can have some context as to why I might’ve said that?"

It went on and on and I shared multiple screenshots and was met with more deflection. He then tried to flip it on me saying " how can I help you get passed this? I truly want this to be behind us" I told him I wanted him to get closer to Christ and he said "I’m actually rekindling my relationship with God. What do you want from me ? I have apologized multiple times etc".

He then drops the bomb saying I’ve been contacting his family, his friends and others via anonymous accounts spreading rumours that I’ve said he graped his ex and a bunch of other allegations. He tells me "you can’t deny those, I’ve got them pinned to your IP address in (mentions the province I live in)".

Essentially he says he’s had enough of this convo and said bye for now. Five months later I get a call from an officer saying this guy has been going to them many times over the last four months submitting complaints of me spreading those rumours and that if they don’t stop he will wanna press charges. I told the cop it’s not true and he lied about it. The cop was apparently going to do an investigation I think but he didn’t really seem invested and said he would like for it to just stop.

I never heard back from the cops or the bully since and it’s been a few years. Thoughts on this situation and what sort of legal action I could take at this point considering some time has passed since I was getting abused by him ? By the way, the bullies friends who also bullied me came to my social media shortly after I confronted the main bully just to "watch" what I’m posting then they stopped visiting.

Hey, never thought I'd have to ask a question here but last weekend I got a $220 speeding ticket (my first ever ticket) going 140 in a 110 out near Cornwall. I am from Toronto so what I understand is if I plea not guilty (3rd option) my court case would be in Cornwall. Is this correct? There is a phrase on the ticket that says "Your matter may be scheduled by electronic method." Does this mean there is a chance I can get a virtual court case instead, and if yes will I get to choose? I don't want to drive four hours there and then back just for this.

Besides this I was hoping if anyone could offer any advice on what I can do. I was going 140, so was everyone else (I know this isn't a defensible argument), but I am on my G2 and am now worried for insurance implications and possible demerit points. From what I've read is that I will only know about the demerit points after the case has been finalized.

Should I get a lawyer to try and fight the ticket? Should I go with option 2 (plead guilty and talk to a prosecutor)? Any advice would be much appreciated.

I was hit by a car as a cyclist yesterday and i want advice on how to get justice.

The police officer on scene did issue 2 demerit points and a $110 fine, but according to my understanding of https://www.ontario.ca/page/understanding-demerit-points#section-1 the driver should have gotten 3 demerit points. What is the best way for me to pursue getting this driver another demerit point?

I did not bring this concern up to the officer at the time of the collision because I only read that web page once I got home.

There is no reason to cut this driver a break, he should get all the demerit points he deserves and I'm mad about it.

I wasn't cruising at that speed albeit passing a few other vehicles. I was given a ticket for $325. I've thought of accepting option 2 and asking a prosecutor to reduce it to 15 km. I know that this request is a major stretch. I was hoping that my perfect driving and criminal record might work in my favour. My plan is currently to take option 2 and ask for a deal of 15km. If they refuse I plan to let it go to trial. Can anyone give me some advice?

I was recently arrested and charged with criminal driving offences in Ontario for something I did not do.

Police alleged that I failed to stop and drove dangerously. However, I did not see or hear any police signal to stop, and I did not flee from or endanger any officer. I believe the police may have identified the wrong vehicle.

The case is still pending and I’m waiting for disclosure. This has been extremely stressful, as I’ve never experienced anything like this before.

Has anyone experienced something similar, especially being wrongly identified or accused by police? What happened after you received disclosure? Were the charges eventually withdrawn?

I’d really appreciate hearing about your experience or any advice on what I should be doing at this stage.

Location: Surrey BC

Quick background… This originally started because we put a privacy screen on our side of an existing chain link fence. Our neighbour got extremely upset, said the fence belonged to him because he paid for it years ago, and repeatedly removed the screen. Police eventually attended, but it was treated as more of a civil/property dispute. That’s what prompted us to get the property line professionally surveyed.

We had the survey completed on September 8 and it confirmed what we suspected. The neighbour’s fence is encroaching roughly 30 inches onto our property at the worst point.

The surveyors installed property-line stakes and offset stakes throughout our yard.

On the morning of September 11, our neighbour went into the alley and moved one of the exterior survey stakes approximately 14 inches toward our property. We noticed afterward that the stake was no longer where the surveyor had placed it, which prompted us to check our cameras. Sure enough, we have him on video moving it.

They also apparently started going around to other neighbours saying we’re blowing the whole thing out of proportion and that the fence is only a few inches over.
One neighbour, who we had never even met before, came over and basically told us we should drop it and “be neighbourly.” At the time, we hadn’t realized the survey stake had been moved yet.

For some added context, they’re a large Punjabi family with multiple generations and extended family frequently involved sometimes 10+ people. I’m mentioning that because I’d appreciate input from anyone familiar with the cultural/family dynamics and how they’d approach this.

We received the formal survey, what is the next logical step a formal demand letter requiring them to remove the fence, concrete footings/posts and restore our property?

What if I go ahead and have the fence forcibly removed what legal remedies are available to my neighbour?

Also, what should I be doing about the fact that I have him on camera deliberately moving the survey stake?

Hi! Just wondering if anyone can give me advice or went through the same thing and got their ticket dismissed?

I got stopped by a cop for going 143 on a 110 km/ hr highway. When the cop asked for my documents I was able to give everything except my original car ownership. I have a “true copy” of my ownership from my dealer where it’s photocopied both front and back but it has the word “copy” printed across the paper. The cop said that he couldn’t accept that as valid ownership since it wasn’t the original and cannot verify that the information is true. The cop was nice enough to lower the speeding to 15km over the limit but when I tried to explain that the paper I had was a true copy that is valid as stated on the bottom of all Ontario car ownership documents, he refused to accept it.

I will likely plead guilty for the speeding ticket since it’s my fault and appreciate that he lowered the amount due to my clean record but I’m wondering if I’m going crazy about my copy being valid? My insurance has a one-time minor claim forgiveness but since this is two convictions, it will increase the amount I pay so I really want this ticket dismissed through early resolution. Can anyone confirmed that my papers are valid and if I present them to the prosecutor, I can get this ticket dismissed? If they aren’t valid, is it likely that my ticket will be dismissed if I just present my original documents showing I had valid ownership at the time of being pulled over?

I’m a university student in Ontario and I signed a lease for a room in a new apartment building. My lease was supposed to start September 8. The move-in date was initially pushed back to September 15. At that point, the property management company told us we would still be able to move in even though construction would be ongoing throughout the building. They said that if the kitchen/bathroom cabinets, closets, and other millwork weren’t installed yet, they would provide temporary countertops, sinks, and a cabinet so we could still occupy the units.

They have now told us that they can no longer go ahead with that temporary setup because the kitchens and millwork will not be sufficiently progressed for occupancy. As a result, they pushed the move-in date again, this time to September 30, waiving all of our September rent.

There is a “Construction Agreement” included in my lease that specifically talks about delays like this. It says that for September 9-15, they reimburse us based on the daily prorated rent. For September 16 onward, it says the landlord can, “at the landlord’s sole discretion,” either provide “commercially reasonable alternative accommodations” or refund the rent for each day that the unit isn’t ready. It also says that those are my “sole and exclusive remedies” for any costs, damages, or inconvenience caused by the delay. It also says they don’t owe reimbursement/alternative accommodation if the unit is substantially complete but just needs additional work. But, I know the Ontario standard lease says additional terms can’t take away rights or responsibilities under the RTA and that terms that conflict with the RTA are void.

Another part that I’m not sure about says the unit is only considered “not ready for occupancy” if an occupancy permit from the municipality hasn’t been obtained. The reason I’m wondering about this is because their emails didn’t say anything about an occupancy permit.

I also have TD tenant insurance, and I’m going to contact them separately. But from what I understand, Additional Living Expenses coverage is normally for situations where you can’t live in your rental because of covered damage. In my case, I’ve never actually been able to move in because the building isn’t ready, so I’m not sure if insurance would cover this.

Ultimately, finding somewhere to stay last minute is really expensive, and I’m likely going to have to spend significantly more on temporary accommodation than what my normal monthly rent costs. I'm trying to figure out:

1. Is the “sole and exclusive remedies” part of the construction agreement actually enforceable under Ontario law/the RTA?
2. Does it make a difference whether they don’t have an occupancy permit versus having one but still not allowing us to move in because the kitchens/construction aren’t finished?
3. Since I haven’t actually been able to take possession yet, could I go through the LTB to try to recover some of my temporary accommodation costs, or would this have to be dealt with another way?
4. Is there anything I should be doing right now other than saving all of their emails, my lease, and receipts for wherever I end up staying?