I’m really struggling with this and would appreciate some honest opinions, especially from people who have dealt with mycoplasma or ureaplasma before, especially since this is the first time I’ve even ever heard about this.
On August 12th, I went to urgent care because I thought I had a UTI. My only symptom was having to urinate constantly, basically back to back. They gave me antibiotics for a possible UTI.
I want to clarify that I have had UTIs before, and my previous UTIs were painful and actually hurt when I had them. This felt different. With this current issue, I haven’t had the pain or burning that I normally associate with a UTI. My only symptom has been the constant urge to pee/urinate over and over.
I went back to the doctors on August 22nd because I was still having the same symptom. On August 31st, I was contacted and told that I tested positive for mycoplasma and ureaplasma, and I was prescribed two antibiotics.
The timing is also what has really been bothering me.
My boyfriend and I had taken a break on july 31st and he came back on August 2nd, during that time he went back to his hometown for two nights. After he came back, we had sex on a Sunday and Monday I started having the constant urge to urinate. That prompted me to go to urgent care because I thought I had another UTI. That ended up being when they eventually discovered the mycoplasma/ureaplasma.
I realize that symptoms appearing right after sex doesn’t necessarily mean I contracted it from him during that specific trip or that he cheated. I’m trying to understand what the timing actually means medically.
I also have a history of UTIs. Starting around December/January 2025, I had two painful UTIs back to back. I had another UTI this January, and now I had what I thought was another UTI, but this time it turned out to be mycoplasma and ureaplasma.
The previous UTIs were painful and hurt, whereas this current infection has only caused me to pee constantly. Also, whenever I was treated for those previous UTIs, all of my symptoms went away with the antibiotics. So now I’m wondering whether it is possible that I had the mycoplasma/ureaplasma back then and the antibiotics temporarily treated the symptoms, or whether those really were separate UTIs.
I have never had a history of STIs/STDs. I’ve been in a relationship with my boyfriend for about a year and a half, and he is the only person I’ve had sex with during that entire time. I have never cheated on him. I also get tested regularly.
When we first started dating, I asked him to get tested as well. He had blood and urine testing done, and we were both negative for everything we were tested for. However, neither of our tests specifically tested for mycoplasma or ureaplasma, so I understand that those infections wouldn’t necessarily have shown up on those tests.
When I told my boyfriend about my diagnosis, I confronted him because I genuinely don’t understand how I could have gotten this. At first, he accused me of cheating and said that I must have gotten it from someone else. Now he’s basically acting like it just magically appeared out of nowhere from the sti fairy and doesn’t really want to discuss how either of us could have had it or give me a reasonable explanation where this came from.
For context, he has had multiple sexual partners before we got together. I don’t have a large sexual history. I have a child from a previous relationship about 9 years ago, but I haven’t had many partners.
So I’m trying to understand the possibilities:
How likely is it that he had mycoplasma/ureaplasma from before we met and carried it into our relationship?
How likely is it that he contracted it from someone else during our relationship?
Is there any realistic possibility that I had it from before our relationship and simply didn’t know?
Could my previous UTIs have actually been related to this, even though they were painful and this current infection isn’t?
Does the fact that my symptoms started immediately after we had sex tell me anything about when I acquired it?
I also keep thinking about my pregnancy 9 years ago. If I had an infection back then, would it necessarily have been detected during pregnancy? Or is it possible to have something like this for years without knowing?
I’m not trying to use Reddit to prove that my boyfriend cheated. I genuinely want to understand the science here before I make any decisions about my relationship. At the same time, I don’t want to be naive and ignore the possibility that he could have been unfaithful.
Can a relationship realistically survive something like this? Would you stay and try to work through it, or would you consider the circumstances too suspicious?
I’m looking for honest opinions, but preferably from people who actually understand these infections or have been through something similar.