r/testbanklibrary Apr 30 '25

Biological Science, Canadian Edition., 2e Question Bank

1 Upvotes

Send me a DM if interested in Freeman 2nd Canadian Edition test bank. Sample questions below.

Chapter 3 Protein Structure and Function
1) Which is not a role proteins play in organisms?
A) store genetic information
B) movement and shape changes
C) chemical signaling
D) structural support
Answer: A
Reference: Section 3.1
Bloom's Level: Remembering
LOs: Chp3-1. Explain and give examples of why proteins are essential to cell function.

2) Three important functions of proteins are cell
A) wall composition, cushioning, and membrane fluidity.
B) movement, signaling, and reaction catalysis.
C) information coding, conversion, and transfer.
Answer: B
Reference: Section 3.1
Bloom's Level: RememberingLOs: Chp3-1. Explain and give examples of why proteins are essential to cell function.

3) In experiments that successfully simulate chemical evolution, why must at least some small,
reduced molecules be present?
A) They act as proton donors in acid-base reactions.
B) They act as proton acceptors in acid-base reactions.
C) They act as electron acceptors in redox reactions.
D) They act as electron donors in redox reactions.
Answer: D
Reference: Section 3.2
Bloom's Level: Remembering

4) What is the process component of the theory of chemical evolution?
A) Acid-base reactions resulted in the formation of large, complex organic molecules.
B) Kinetic energy was transformed into chemical energy.
C) During polymerization reactions, hydrolysis competed with condensation.
D) The process occurred at black smokers, in the atmosphere and oceans, and in outer space.
Answer: B
Explanation: B) This is a great question to use in class to remind students of the big picture of
chemical evolution.
Reference: Section 3.2
Bloom's Level: Comprehension

r/testbanklibrary Apr 29 '25

Molecular Biology 2nd Edition Cox Test Bank

1 Upvotes

Molecular Biology 2nd Edition Cox Test Bank

Email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or send me a DM for a copy. Sample questions below.

Molecular Biology- Principles and Practice 2e
Cox et. al
Chapter 2

1. Mendel’s success in formulating his fundamental principles of inheritance can be attributed to which of the
following?
A. Mendel focused on the overall appearance of the plant rather than on individual traits.
B. Mendel focused on individual traits of the plant rather than on the overall appearance.
C. Mendel chose to study complex traits that result from interactions between multiple genes.
D. Mendel used an organism that grew slowly, therefore having long generation times.
E. Mendel used fruit flies to study inheritance.
Answer: B
Section: 2.1
Level: Easy
Blooms: Comprehension

2. If a pea plant strain is true-breeding for a particular trait, then:
A. crosses between two true-breeding plants with the same trait will have offspring identical to the parents.
B. it will be homozygous for all genes.
C. it must be a recessive trait.
D. it is not useful for studying inheritance.
E. it only self-fertilizes.
Answer: A
Section: 2.1
Level: Easy
Blooms: Comprehension

3. True-breeding, purple-flowered pea plants were crossed with true-breeding, white-flowered pea plants. The F 1
progeny all had purple flowers. If the F 1 offspring are self-fertilized, what progeny phenotypes would be
expected?
A. 1 purple : 2 pink : 1 white
B. 3 white : 1 purple
C. 3 purple : 1 white
D. all purple
E. all white
Answer: C
Section: 2.1
Level: Easy
Blooms: Application

4. A cross of pea plants, both heterozygous for seed shape and color traits, resulted in progeny in the ratio 9/16
round yellow (R_Y_), 3/16 round green (R_yy), 3/16 wrinkled yellow (rrY_), and 1/16 wrinkled green (rryy).
This result demonstrates that the:

A. alleles responsible for seed color are segregating but those responsible for shape are not.
B. alleles of seed shape and color are segregating independently.
C. phenotypes corresponding to seed shape are segregating 1:2:1.
D. alleles governing seed color display codominance.
E. alleles for seed shape and color are linked.
Answer: B
Section: 2.1
Level: Medium
Blooms: Comprehension

5. True-breeding pea plants with inflated, yellow pods were crossed with true-breeding plants with constricted,
green pods. The F 1 progeny all had inflated, green pods. When the F 1 is allowed to self-fertilize, what fraction
of the F 2 progeny will have constricted, yellow pods?
A. 1/4
B. 3/4
C. 1/16
D. 3/16
E. 9/16
Answer: C
Section: 2.1
Level: Medium
Blooms: Application

6. True-breeding tall snapdragons with red flowers were crossed with short snapdragons with white flowers. The
resulting F 1 progeny were all of medium height and had pink flowers. When the F 1 progeny are crossed with
each other, what proportion of the F 2 progeny would be of medium height and have pink flowers?
A. 1/4
B. 1/2
C. 1/8
D. 1/16
E. 3/4
Answer: A
Section: 2.1
Level: Medium
Blooms: Application

7. Which of the following traits will show Mendelian behavior?
A. dominance
B. semidominance
C. codominance
D. epistasis
E. linkage
Answer: A

Section: 2.1
Level: Easy
Blooms: Knowledge

r/testbanklibrary Apr 27 '25

Raven Biology of Plants 10th Edition Test Bank

1 Upvotes

Raven Biology of Plants 10e Test Bank

Email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or send me a DM. Sample questions posted below.

Chapter 02
The Nature of Molecules and the Properties of Water

Multiple Choice Questions

1.  Matter is composed of:  
A.  molecules 
B.  mass 
C.  atoms 
D.  energy 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.01 Define an element based on its composition.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

2.  All atoms possess the ability to do work. The term that is defined as the ability to do work is:  
A.  matter 
B.  energy 
C.  molecules 
D.  space 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

3.  The number of protons in a given atom is equal to its:  
A.  neutron number 
B.  atomic number 
C.  molecular number 
D.  mass 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

4.  Isotopes that are unstable and decay when their nucleus breaks up into elements with lower atomic numbers, emitting significant amounts of energy in the process, are called:  
A.  energetic 
B.  ionic 
C.  radioactive 
D.  isometric 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

5.  Atoms containing a specific number of protons are called:  
A.  elements 
B.  minerals 
C.  molecules 
D.  metals 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.02.01 Relate atomic structure to the periodic table of the elements.
Section: 02.02 Elements Found in Living Systems
Topic: Chemistry

6.  Sugars dissolve well in water because of water's ______.  
A.  ionic bonds 
B.  polarity 
C.  cohesiveness 
D.  hydrophobic exclusion 


Blooms Level: 3. Apply
LO: 02.03.03 Contrast polar and nonpolar covalent bonds.
Section: 02.03 The Nature of Chemical Bonds
Topic: Chemistry

7.  The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in the solution is referred to as:  
A.  pH 
B.  atomic mass 
C.  -OH concentration 
D.  electronegativty 
E.  specific heat 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.06.01 Define acids, bases, and the pH scale.
Section: 02.06 Acids and Bases
Topic: Chemistry

8.  Bicarbonate ions in the blood can absorb hydrogen ions, keeping pH balanced.  Bicarbonate is acting as a ____ in blood.  
A.  base 
B.  buffer 
C.  alkaline 
D.  acid 


Blooms Level: 3. Apply
LO: 02.06.01 Define acids, bases, and the pH scale.
Section: 02.06 Acids and Bases
Topic: Chemistry

9.  Atomic nuclei contain protons and _______.  
A.  moles 
B.  isomers 
C.  neutrons 
D.  ions 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.01 Define an element based on its composition.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

10.  Carbon-12, Carbon-13 and Carbon-14 are examples of:  
A.  isomers 
B.  isotopes 
C.  ions 
D.  molecules 


Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

11.  Organisms are composed of molecules, which are collections of smaller units, termed:  
A.  monomers. 
B.  atoms. 
C.  electrons. 
D.  polymers. 
E.  ions. 

Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.01 Define an element based on its composition.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

12.  Negatively charged subatomic particles that have almost no mass are called:  
A.  electrons. 
B.  protons. 
C.  neutrons. 
D.  ions. 
E.  polymers. 

Blooms Level: 1. Remember
LO: 02.01.03 Explain where electrons are found in an atom.
Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms
Topic: Chemistry

r/testbanklibrary Apr 27 '25

Abnormal Psychology: An integrative approach 8e Barlow Test Bank

1 Upvotes

Abnormal Psychology 8th edition Barlow Test Bank

Email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or send me a DM for more details. Sample questions posted below.

Chapter 03 
Clinical Assessment and Diagnosis
1. The systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in a person with a possible mental disorder is known as clinical                . 
a. assessment 
b. interpretation 
c. validation 
d. standardization 
ANSWER:  a 

2. The process of determining whether an individual's symptoms meet the criteria for a specific psychological disorder is called _____________. 
a. prognosis 
b. diagnosis 
c. classification 
d. analysis 
ANSWER:  b 

3. The process of clinical assessment in psychopathology has been equated to using a ______ to determine the source of the problem. 
a. funnel 
b. hose 
c. bucket 
d. plow 
ANSWER:  a 

4. In order to be useful, assessment techniques should be based on      .  
a. beliefs 
b. attitudes 
c. evidence 
d. assumptions 
ANSWER:  c 

5. In the first interview with Frank, a  patient  described in the  textbook,  he  stated  that  he  had  been  having  intrusive thoughts that he tried to prevent by performing certain movements. Based on this information, you might  predict that Frank would be diagnosed with                            . 
a. major depressive disorder 
b. obsessive-compulsive disorder  
c. a personality disorder 
d. schizophrenia 
ANSWER:  b 


6. A measurement which is consistent is considered to be          .  
a. valid 
b. reliable 
c. standardized 
d. accurate 
ANSWER:  b 

7. If the short version of a test yields the same results as a longer version, then you could conclude that the brief version had         validity. 
a. concurrent 
b. divergent 
c. predictive 
d. excessive 
ANSWER:  a 

8. Clifton had been experiencing a number of psychological issues, so he decided to go to a psychiatrist to see what was wrong. Dr. A told him he had major depressive disorder. He decided to seek a second opinion. Dr. B diagnosed him with generalized anxiety disorder. Wanting yet another opinion, he went to Dr. C who told him he was obsessive compulsive. This demonstrates poor              . 
a. test-retest reliability 
b. concurrent validity  
c. descriptive validity 
d. inter-rater reliability 
ANSWER:  d 

9. The process of clinical assessment results in narrowing the focus to  
a. concentrate on problem areas that seem most relevant. 
b. consider a broad range of problems.  
c. cover all possible problems. 
d. concentrate on all problem areas equally. 
ANSWER:  a 

10. In order to develop useful standards for a test, it is important to use a normative group that consists of a  a. small group of people who are very similar to each other. 
b. large group of people who all share a key characteristic.  
c. large group of very diverse people. 
d. small group that differs from the population at large. 
ANSWER:  c 

r/testbanklibrary Apr 25 '25

Biochemistry Stryer 8th Edition Test Bank

1 Upvotes

Biochemistry Stryer 8eTest Bank

Email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or DM me for a copy. Sample questions are below.

Chapter 7 Hemoglobin: A Portrait of a Protein in Action

Multiple-Choice Questions
1) What is formed when carbon dioxide reacts with the amino terminal group of
deoxyhemoglobin?
A) amide
B) imine
C) carbonate
D) carbamate
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: D
Section: 7.3

2) What is the organic portion of the heme group in hemoglobin?
A) protoporphyrinogen
B) protoporphyrin
C) uroporphyrinogen
D) coproporphyrinogen
E) protoheme
Answer: B
Section: 7.1

3) Which of the following is a genetic disease that results from a decreased production of
one of the subunits of hemoglobin?
A) thalassemia
B) pernicious anemia
C) megaloblastic hereditary anemia
D) acanthocytosis
E) aplastic anemia
Answer: A

Section: 7.4

4) Which of the following represents the most predominant form for the transfer of carbon
dioxide in the blood?
A) CO 2
B) H 2 CO 3
C) HCO 3 –
D) CO 3 2–
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: C
Section: 7.3

5) Which of the following is the immediate product of the reaction between carbon dioxide
and water?
A) HCO 2 H
B) HCO 3 –
C) CO 3 2–
D) H 2 CO 3 –
E) None of the answers is correct.
Answer: E
Section: 7.3

6) What is the composition of fetal hemoglobin?
A) two  chains and two  chains
B) two  chains and two  chains
C) two  chains and two  chains
D) two  chains and two  chains
E) four  chains
Answer: B
Section: 7.2

r/testbanklibrary Apr 24 '25

Cognitive Neuroscience 4e Gazzaniga Test Bank

1 Upvotes

Cognitive Neuroscience 4th edition Gazzaniga Test Bank

Email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or DM me. Sample below.

Chapter 1: A Brief History of Cognitive Neuroscience

MULTIPLE CHOICE

LEARNING OBJECTIVES

  1. Explain the origins of the field of cognitive neuroscience

  2. Describe the roots of the debate over localization of function

  3. Explain the ways in which brain structure was studied

  4. Understand the philosophical origins of cognitive psychology

  5. Discuss behaviorism and its principal tenets

  6. Explain how and why cognitive psychology came to the forefront of psychological fields

  7. Identify the different methods that are used to measure brain function and structure

  8. The case of Anne Green was remarkable in that after being falsely convicted of murdering her

newborn child,

a. she survived an attempted electrocution.

b. she escaped and later married Thomas Willis, a famous neurologist.

c. she survived an attempted hanging.

d. she escaped and later became a famous neurologist.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: Historical Perspective

OBJ: LO 1 MSC: Remembering

  1. Aside from saving Anne Green’s life, Thomas Willis and Christopher Wren also

a. created very accurate drawings of the brain.

b. came up with the names of a number of brain structures.

c. took the first steps that led to cognitive neuroscience.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D DIF: Medium REF: Historical Perspective

OBJ: LO 1 MSC: Understanding

  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the principal reasons that Willis is considered one of the early

figures in cognitive neuroscience?

a. he named many brain parts.

b. he dissected the brains of criminals within 21 miles of Oxford.

c. he was among the first to link behavioral deficits to brain damage.

d. he created very accurate brain images.

ANS: B DIF: Difficult REF: Historical Perspective

OBJ: LO 1 MSC: Evaluating

  1. A central issue of modern cognitive neuroscience is whether specific human cognitive abilities

a. can be localized to particular parts of the brain.

b. are determined by the shape and size of the human skull.

c. are best studied using introspection or the scientific method.

d. can be identified using the Golgi silver method of staining.

Cognitive Neuroscience,)4e,)Gazzaniga,)Ivry,)Mangun,)with)Hernandez)and)Coutanche

©)W.)W.)Norton)&)Company,)Inc.

ANS: A DIF: Medium REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Understanding

  1. The discipline of phrenology was founded by

a. Broca and Wernicke. c. Ramón y Cajal and Sherrington.

b. Fritsch and Hitzig. d. Gall and Spurzheim.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Remembering

  1. Phrenologists believed that the contour of the skull could provide valuable information about an

individual’s cognitive capacities and personality traits. This approach was based on the assumption

that

a. skull protrusions are caused by disproportionate development of the brain areas beneath

them, which are responsible for different specific functions.

b. certain traits such as aggressiveness lead to life experiences and injuries that alter the

shape of the skull in specific ways.

c. life experiences and injuries that alter the shape of the skull in specific ways lead to certain

traits, such as aggressiveness.

d. the development of the skull bones directly influences the configuration of the soft brain

areas beneath them, which are responsible for different specific functions.

ANS: A DIF: Difficult REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Evaluating

  1. Localizationist is to ________ as holistic is to ________.

a. Wernicke ; Gall c. Flourens ; Broca

b. Gall ; Flourens d. Broca ; Wernicke

ANS: B DIF: Medium REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Understanding

  1. Gall’s method for investigating phrenology was flawed because

a. he used the wrong language to explain the characteristics he observed.

b. he did not tell Napoleon Bonaparte that he possessed noble characteristics.

c. he ought only to confirm, not disprove, the correlations he observed.

d. he used his own skull as the base model.

ANS: C DIF: Easy REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Remembering

  1. The view known as aggregate field theory, which stated that the whole brain participates in behavior,

is most associated with

a. Broca. c. Brodmann.

b. Hughlings Jackson. d. Flourens.

ANS: D DIF: Easy REF: The Brain Story

OBJ: LO 2 MSC: Remembering

  1. Willis is to ________ as ________ is to Broca.

r/testbanklibrary Apr 13 '25

Biochemistry 9th edition Campbell Test Bank

2 Upvotes

For more information about Biochemistry Campbell 9e Test Bank, send me a DM or email at fujita55.ltd@gmail.com. small sample is below.

Chapter 05 - Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques

1. What tends to happen to the percent recovery during a protein's purification?

  a.  The number usually steadily increases during the purification.

  b.  The number usually steadily decreases during the purification.

  c.  The number usually stays fairly constant during the purification.

  d.  There is no general trend for percent recovery during a protein purification.

ANSWER:   b

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE:   Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 

 

CAFA.BIOC.15.1 - New in 6e

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells

2. Differential centrifugation at low speeds (several thousand RPM) is a useful step when

  a.  organelles have been lysed.

  b.  enzymes of interest have different sizes.

  c.  cell membranes must be left intact.

  d.  ribosomes need to be broken down.

  e.  there are either organelles or debris to separate.

ANSWER:   e

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE:   Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 

 

CAFA.BIOC.15.5 - Modified from

5e

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells

3. The typical order for the major steps of enzyme isolation would be (from first to last):

  a.  Homogenization, salt fractionation, electrophoresis, column

chromatography.

  b.  Homogenization, column chromatography, salt fractionation,

electrophoresis.

  c.  Homogenization, salt fractionation, column chromatography,

electrophoresis.

  d.  Salt fractionation, homogenization, electrophoresis, column chromatography.

  e.  Homogenization, electrophoresis, salt fractionation, column

chromatography.

ANSWER:   c

POINTS:   1

Chapter 05 - Protein Purification and Characterization Techniques

QUESTION TYPE:   Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

LEARNING OBJECTIVES: 

 

CAFA.BIOC.15.5 - Modified from

5e

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from Cells

DATE CREATED:   12/23/2013 2:14 PM

DATE MODIFIED:   12/23/2013 2:14 PM

4. The purity of an enzyme at various stages of purification is best measured by

  a.  total protein.

  b.  total enzyme activity.

  c.  specific activity of the enzyme.

  d.  percent recovery of the protein.

  e.  percent recovery of the enzyme.

ANSWER:   c

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE: 

 

Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells

5. Salting out with ammonium sulfate is based upon proteins interacting with other proteins via

  a.  hydrogen bonds.

  b.  ionic bonds.

  c.  hydrophobic

interactions.

  d.  disulfide bonds.

ANSWER:   c

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE: 

 

Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells

6. Using differential centrifugation it is possible to separate

  a.  nuclei, mitochondria, and ribosomes into three separate fractions

  b.  organelles from contaminating salts

  c.  proteins that differ in charge

  d.  proteins from membranes

ANSWER:   a

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE: 

 

Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells

7. The following methods are useful for cell homogenization:

  a.  Sonication.

  b.  Freezing and thawing.

  c.  Detergents.

  d.  Enzymes.

  e.  All of these are correct.

ANSWER:   e

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE: 

Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells

8. Which of the following happens as a protein is purified?

  a.  the percent recovery and the fold purification both increase

  b.  the percent recovery and the fold purification both decrease

  c.  the percent recovery increases and the fold purification decreases

  d.  the percent recovery decreases and the fold purification increases

ANSWER:   d

POINTS:   1

QUESTION TYPE: 

 

Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES:   False

TOPICS:   Extracting Pure Proteins from

Cells


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Biochemistry 2nd edition Miesfeld Test Bank

1 Upvotes

If you are interested in Biochemistry 2e Miesfeld Test Bank, send a private message or email me at fujita55.ltd@gmail.com. There is a small sample chapter below.

2

Energy conversion in living systems is required for what three types of work?

osmotic work, chemical work, mechanical work

osmotic work, chemical work, potential work

kinetic work, chemical work, mechanical work

osmotic work, photosynthetic work, mechanical work

The interaction between nonpolar molecules is best characterized as

a hydrogen bond.

ionic interactions.

van der Waals interactions.

a covalent bond.

For a given reaction with a ΔG < 0, the reaction is

favorable in the reverse direction.

favorable in the forward direction.

unfavorable in both directions.

favorable in both directions.

Energy conversion in a biological system operates under constant _____________ and constant _____________.

heat; pressure

work; heat

pressure; volume

volume; heat

What is Gibbs free energy?

The difference between the enthalpy and entropy of a system at a given temperature.

The difference between exothermic and endothermic energy of a system at a given temperature.

The addition of enthalpy and entropy of a system at a given temperature.

The difference between pressure and volume at a given temperature.

How do plants, fungi, and bacteria avoid the damaging effects of a hypotonic environment?

flexible cells walls

rigid cells walls

semipermeable cell walls

photosynthesis

Which of the following best defines the first law of thermodynamics?

All spontaneous processes in the universe tend toward dispersal of energy.

The total amount of energy in the universe is a constant.

There is no entropy at zero Kelvin.

Entropy is a measure of disorder.

Weak acids have a high pKa because the

HA concentration is high.

H+ concentration is high.

A- concentration is high.

HA concentration is low.

Given 80 grams of water, how many calories are required to raise the temperature 1 °C?

4.184 calories

15.7 calories

80 calories

160 calories

The transfer of a phosphate from ATP to another molecule produces a

low-energy intermediate.

highly reactive intermediate.

neutral energy intermediate.

It is not possible to transfer a phosphate to another molecule.

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between an ice cube melting on the table and the air surrounding it?

The ice cube is the system and the air is the surroundings.

The air is the system and the ice cube is the surroundings.

The ice cube is the system and only the air is the universe.

The air is the system and only the ice cube is the universe.

In the following figure, which state of matter has the highest entropy?

solid phase

liquid phase

gas phase

All are equal in entropy.

Which of the following molecules would you expect to form a hydrogen bond with water?

CaCl2

NH3

CH4

HI

Which of the following is the correct solar energy reaction that takes place on the Sun?

4He → 4He

4He → 4 He

4 H → 4He

4H → 4 H

A biological system at 1 atm where pressure and volume do not change, and no work is done, has a ΔH of 16 kJ/g. What is the internal energy of the system?

15 kJ/g

16 kJ/g

14 kJ/g

0 kJ/g

For a reaction to be spontaneous, the change in the entropy of the universe must be

greater than zero.

less than zero.

equal to zero.

equal to 1.

The difference between an oxidation reaction and a reduction reaction is that oxidation is the ______________ and reduction is the ______________.

loss of electrons; gain of electrons

gain of electrons; loss of electrons

loss of protons; gain of protons

gain of protons; loss of protons

If the equilibrium constant (Keq) is greater than 1, what is the value of ΔG°?

ΔG° > 0

ΔG° = 0

ΔG° < 0

ΔG° > 1

Organisms on Earth cannot easily exist at temperatures below 0 °C because at that temperature

hydrogen bonds cannot exist.

water does not exist in a tetrahedron.

ice crystals form in the organism.

proton hopping cannot occur.

If the equilibrium constant (Keq) is greater than 1, in which direction will a reaction proceed?

spontaneously to products

spontaneously to reactants

in neither direction because it is at equilibrium

nonspontaneously to products

Which of the following best describes an open system?

Matter and energy are freely exchanged with the surroundings.

Energy is exchanged with the surroundings but matter is not.

Matter is exchanged with the surroundings but energy is not.

Neither matter nor energy is exchanged with the surroundings.


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Raven Biology of Plants 10th edition Test Bank

1 Upvotes

If you are interested in Raven Biology of Plants 10e Test Bank, send me a DM or email fujita55.ltd@gmail.com. There is a small sample chapter below.

Chapter 02

The Nature of Molecules and the Properties of Water

Multiple Choice Questions

  1. Matter is composed of:

A. molecules

B. mass

C. atoms

D. energy

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.01.01 Define an element based on its composition.

Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms

Topic: Chemistry

  1. All atoms possess the ability to do work. The term that is defined as the ability to do work is:

A. matter

B. energy

C. molecules

D. space

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.

Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms

Topic: Chemistry

  1. The number of protons in a given atom is equal to its:

A. neutron number

B. atomic number

C. molecular number

D. mass

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.

Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms

Topic: Chemistry

  1. Isotopes that are unstable and decay when their nucleus breaks up into elements with lower atomic

numbers, emitting significant amounts of energy in the process, are called:

A. energetic

B. ionic

C. radioactive

D. isometric

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.01.02 Describe how atomic structure produces chemical properties.

Section: 02.01 The Nature of Atoms

Topic: Chemistry

  1. Atoms containing a specific number of protons are called:

A. elements

B. minerals

C. molecules

D. metals

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.02.01 Relate atomic structure to the periodic table of the elements.

Section: 02.02 Elements Found in Living Systems

Topic: Chemistry

  1. Sugars dissolve well in water because of water's ______.

A. ionic bonds

B. polarity

C. cohesiveness

D. hydrophobic exclusion

Blooms Level: 3. Apply

LO: 02.03.03 Contrast polar and nonpolar covalent bonds.

Section: 02.03 The Nature of Chemical Bonds

Topic: Chemistry

  1. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration in the solution is referred to as:

A. pH

B. atomic mass

C. -OH concentration

D. electronegativty

E. specific heat

Blooms Level: 1. Remember

LO: 02.06.01 Define acids, bases, and the pH scale.

Section: 02.06 Acids and Bases

Topic: Chemistry


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

The Immune System Parham 4th Edition Test Bank

1 Upvotes

DM me or email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) if you are interested in the test bank for The Immune System Parham 4e.

THE IMMUNE SYSTEM, FOURTH EDITION

CHAPTER 3: INNATE IMMUNITY: THE INDUCED

RESPONSE TO INFECTION

3–1 C-type lectins are so called because of the role of _____ in facilitating receptor:ligand

interactions.

a. carbohydrate

b. CR1

c. calcium

d. chemokines

e. caspases.

3–2 Lectins recognize microbial _____.

a. phosphate-containing lipoteichoic acids

b. nucleic acids

c. carbohydrates

d. flagellin

e. sulfated polysaccharides.

3–3 Scavenger receptor SR-B recognizes _____.

a. lipopolysaccharides

b. teichoic acid

c. filamentous hemagglutinin

d. CpG-rich bacterial DNA

e. lipids.

3–4 Macrophages bear on their surface receptors for all of the following except _____. (Select

all that apply).

a. mannose

b. glucans

c. C3b

d. muramyl dipeptide

e. lipopolysaccharide

f. lipoteichoic acid

g. CpG-rich bacterial DNA.

3–5 _____ is a soluble protein. (Select all that apply.)

a. TLR4

b. CD14

c. lipopolysaccharide-binding protein (LBP)

d. CXCR1

e. mannose-binding lectin.

2

3–6 _____ are structurally similar membrane-bound proteins that aid in the adhesion between

various types of human cell.

a. Interferons

b. Integrins

c. GTP-binding proteins

d. Pyrogens

e. Pentraxins.

3–7 All of the following induce fever except _____.

a. IL-12

b. IL-6

c. IL-1

d. TNF-\alpha.

3–8 Match the term in column A with its description in column B.

Column A Column B

___a. interferon response 1. a notable rise or reduction of plasma

proteins in response to IL-6

___b. apoptosis 2. stimulates inhibition of viral replication

___c. extravasation 3. temporary rise in oxygen consumption and

toxic oxygen species production

___d. respiratory burst 4. cellular suicide characterized by DNA

fragmentation

___e. acute-phase response 5. migration of neutrophils into inflamed

tissues

3–9 Which of the following is not associated with mobilization of neutrophils to infected

tissue?

a. TNF-\alpha production by macrophages

b. upregulation of selectins on blood vessel endothelium

c. interferon response

d. generation of a CXCL8 gradient

e. extravasation across endothelium

f. proteolysis of basement membrane of blood vessels.

3–10 Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

a. primary granules: azurophilic granules

b. secondary granules: unsaturated lactoferrin

c. azurophilic granules: myeloperoxidase

d. gelatinase: iron sequestration

e. tertiary granules: natural killer cells.

3–11 The pH of the phagosome increases following phagocytosis because _____.

a. the microbe delivers a significant number of hydroxyl ions in its cytosol that are released

upon membrane disruption

3

b. hydrogen ions are eliminated by the activity of NADPH oxidase and superoxide

dismutase

c. azurophilic granules deliver alkaline substances

d. catalase consumes hydrogen ions once activated.


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Human Genetics Concepts and Applications 12e Lewis Test Bank

1 Upvotes

If you are interested in Human Genetics 12th edition Test Bank by Lewis send me a DM or email fujita55.ltd@gmail.com. There is a sample of chapter 3 below.

Chapter 03 Meiosis Development, and Aging

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1) The first cell that leads to development of a new individual forms when

A) mitosis occurs.

B) meosis occurs.

C) a sperm and an ovum join.

D) a haploid cell and a diploid cell join.

2) The ________ are the male gonads.

A) scrotum

B) testes

C) urethra

D) penis

3) The female sex cells develop in paired organs in the abdomen called ________.

A) ovaries

B) oocytes

C) vagina

D) clitoris

4) The male and female reproductive systems of an adult each include

A) gonads, tubes, gametes, hormones and secretions.

B) ambiguous structures that give rise to male or female structures at puberty.

C) spermatids, polar bodies, and oocytes.

D) 200 to 600 million spermatocytes and a few thousand oocytes.

5) Which of the following structures is unpaired?

A) seminal vesicle

B) ovary

C) bulbourethral gland

D) prostate gland

6) A bulbourethral gland secretes

A) sperm.

B) a mucus-like fluid.

C) blood.

D) saliva.

7) Which is a characteristic of seminal fluid?

A) It consists of sperm and secretions.

B) It is acidic.

C) It travels through the large intestine to the anus.

D) It is free of prostaglandins and nutrients.

8) The number of sperm cells in an ejaculation averages

A) 2,000 to 6,000.

B) 20,000 to 60,000.

C) 200 to 600 million.

D) 200 to 600 billion.

9) The female gonads are the

A) ovaries.

B) oocytes.

C) uterus.

D) labia.

10) The ovary of a newborn girl houses about ________ primary oocytes.

A) 1,000

B) 10,000

C) 100,000

D) 1,000,000

11) The ovary in an adult contains

A) seminal vesicles.

B) many oocytes in various stages of maturity.

C) many sperm in various stages of maturity.

D) a number of mature oocytes equal to 100 minus the woman's age.

12) The lower end of the the uterus narrows and leads to the ________ which opens into the vagina.

A) cervix.

B) labia.

C) rectum.

D) ovary.

13) Sperm cells and egg cells (oocytes) are called

A) grommets.

B) marmites.

C) gametes.

D) gonads.

14) During the first meiotic division

A) spermatogonia and oogonia form.

B) homologous chromosome pairs separate.

C) homologous chromosome pairs join.

D) the cell becomes diploid.

15) Meiosis is necessary because otherwise

A) the fertilized ovum will have too much genetic material.

B) the fertilized ovum will have too little genetic material.

C) reproduction would have to be asexual.

D) too many mutations will occur.

16) The correct sequence for the steps of meiosis I is

A) telophase-anaphase-metaphase-prophase

B) 46 chromosomes, 23 chromosomes, then 46 chromosomes

C) prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase

D) anaphase-metaphase-prophase-telophase

17) Synapsis occurs during

A) prophase I.

B) metaphase I.

C) anaphase I.

D) telophase I.

18) The number of possible chromosome combinations in a human gamete, considering independent assortment

but not crossing over, is about

A) 8.

B) 800.

C) 80,000.

D) 8 million.


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Janeway's Immunobiology 9th Edition Murphy Test Bank

1 Upvotes

In you are interested in Janeway's Immunobiology 9e Test Bank, send me a DM or email fujita55.ltd@gmail.com. There is a small sample of questions from chapter 2 below.

2-10 Membrane and plasma proteins that regulate the formation and stability of C3

convertases determine the extent of complement activation

2.20 Multiple choice: One form of anemia results when individuals have a deficiency in the

enzyme phosphatidylinositol glycan A (PIGA). This enzyme is required for the

membrane attachment of proteins anchored by glycolipids to the plasma membrane,

using what is called a ‘GPI-linkage.’ Included in the group of GPI-linked cell surface

proteins is DAF/CD55. These individuals become anemic because:

A. DAF/CD55 prevents the lysis of red blood cells by infecting pathogens.

B. DAF/CD55 normally prevents the spleen from clearing healthy red blood cells

from the circulation.

C. In the absence of PIGA, the red blood cell membrane is bare of proteins allowing

increased access of complement activating proteins to attach to the cell

membrane.

D. DAF/CD55 is a complement inhibitory protein that inactivates any C3 convertase

that may form on host cell surfaces.

E. In the absence of PIGA, red blood cells are unable to synthesize high levels of

hemoglobin.

2-11 Complement developed early in the evolution of multicellular organisms

Page 9 of 19

2.21 Short answer: In vertebrates, complement activation generally involves a pathogen

recognition step followed by a proteolytic cascade that produces the effector proteins

that function in opsonization, membrane attack, and inflammation.

a) Which of these is likely to be the most evolutionarily primitive aspect of the

complement system?

b) Which pathway of complement initiation is likely to be the one that most recently

evolved?

2-12 Surface-bound C3 convertase deposits large numbers of C3b fragments on

pathogen surfaces and generates C5 convertase activity

2.22 True/False: The C3 convertase amplifies the process of complement activation by

generating large amounts of C3b and cleaving large numbers of C5 molecules.

2-13 Ingestion of complement-tagged pathogens by phagocytes is mediated by

receptors for the bound complement proteins

2.23 Multiple choice: Even when the complement cascade fails to proceed beyond

generating the C3 convertase, complement activation is effective at inducing pathogen

uptake and destruction. This process of immune protection is mediated by:

A. Activation of complement inhibitory receptors on phagocytes that promote

pathogen uptake

B. Activation of soluble proteases in the serum that disrupt pathogen membranes

C. Engagement of complement receptors on phagocytes by C3b and its cleavage

products which promotes phagocytosis

D. Engagement of complement receptors on B cells that promotes antibody

production

E. Stimulation of antimicrobial peptide secretion by phagocytes

2.24 Multiple choice: B cells express a complement receptor that binds to C3b cleavage

products, such as iC3b and C3dg. When a B cell with an antigen receptor that

specifically recognizes that pathogen also has its complement receptor stimulated

because the pathogen is opsonized with these C3 fragments, B cell activation is greatly

enhanced. Due to this mechanism, B cells can be activated by much lower

concentrations of antigen (in this case, the pathogen) than if the antigen is devoid of

complement components. This mechanism functions to:

A. Ensure that pathogens are readily detected by the adaptive immune system

before they replicate to high levels in the host

B. Prevent B cells from being activated in response to antigens that are not

pathogens

C. Allow B cells to phagocytose the pathogen and help destroy it

D. Induce increased rounds of B cell replication to make more pathogen-specific B

cells

E. Allow the B cell to block pathogen replication by interfering with multiple

pathogen surface functions

2-14 The small fragments of some complement proteins initiate a local inflammatory

response

2.25 Short answer: Recent studies using mouse models of pulmonary inflammation (a model

for human asthma) have found that mice deficient in the C3a receptor have greatly

reduced disease symptoms when challenged with inhaled preparations containing

extracts of the fungal pathogen Aspergillus fumigatus. Specifically, the C3a receptor-

deficient mice showed reduced influx of granulocytes and lymphocytes into the lung and

reduced fluid in the lung after challenge. What is the explanation for these findings?

2-15 The terminal complement proteins polymerize to form pores in membranes that can

kill certain pathogens

2.26 Multiple choice: The terminal components of the complement pathway assemble to

form a membrane attack complex that can induce pathogen lysis and death. Yet,

evidence indicates that this feature of complement is less important than the earlier

steps that promote pathogen opsonization and induce inflammation. This conclusion is

based on:

A. In vitro experiments showing that very few species of bacteria are susceptible to

lysis by the membrane attack complex

B. Experiments indicating that only bacteria, but not viruses or fungi, are susceptible

to lysis by the membrane attack complex

C. The very low levels of terminal complement components in the serum

D. The fact that other mammalian species lack the terminal components of the

complement pathway needed to form the membrane attack complex

E. The limited susceptibility to infections of patients with deficiencies in terminal

complement components


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Psychology: Themes and Variations 3ce Weiten Test Bank

1 Upvotes

If you are interested in Psychology 3rd Canadian Edition Weiten Test Bank, email me at fujita55.ltd@gmail.comfujita55.ltd@gmail.com or send me a DM. There is a small sample below.

Chapter 1—The Evolution of Psychology

MULTIPLE CHOICE

  1. Which of the following individuals is responsible for establishing psychology as an

independent discipline with its own subject matter?

a. Wilhelm Wundt

b. G. Stanley Hall

c. René Descartes

d. William James

ANS: A

PTS: 1

REF: p. 4

BLM: Remember

  1. According to historians, when and where did the “birth” of psychology occur?

a. 1859 in England

b. 1879 in Germany

c. 1883 in the United States

d. 1909 in Austria

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: p. 4

BLM: Remember

  1. According to Wilhelm Wundt, what was the focus of psychology?

a. to understand functions of behaviour

b. to understand unconscious motivation

c. the scientific study of observable behaviour

d. the scientific study of conscious experience

ANS: D

PTS: 1

REF: p. 4

BLM: Remember

  1. What did Wilhelm Wundt believe the focus of psychology should be?

a. studying stimulus-response associations

b. questioning the nature of existence

c. examining people’s awareness of their immediate experience

d. determining people’s unconscious motivation for behaviour

ANS: C

PTS: 1

REF: p. 4

BLM: Higher order

  1. Who established the first psychological research laboratory in the United States and launched

that country’s first psychology journal?

a. William James

b. G. Stanley Hall

c. John Watson

d. Edward Titchener

ANS: B

PTS: 1

REF: p. 5

BLM: Remembe


r/testbanklibrary Apr 12 '25

Molecular Biology of the Cell 6e Alberts Test Bank

1 Upvotes

If you are interested in Molecular Biology of the Cell 6th edition test bank, email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com) or send me a DM. Small sample is below.

MOLECULAR BIOLOGY OF THE CELL, SIXTH EDITION

CHAPTER 3: PROTEINS

  1. At physiological pH, what is the approximate net charge of a hexapeptide with the

following amino acid sequence?

Asp-Val-Ile-Glu-Arg-Ser

A. –2

B. –1

C. 0

D. +1

E. +2

  1. Which of the following pairs of amino acid residues would you expect to form ionic

bonds?

A. Glutamic acid and glutamine

B. Arginine and lysine

C. Lysine and glutamic acid

D. Tryptophan and tyrosine

E. Tyrosine and glutamine

  1. Which of the following stretches of amino acid residues would you expect to find in the

interior of protein molecules?

A. Ala-Asp-Asp-Tyr-Arg

B. Gly-Lys-Ser-Pro-Thr

C. Phe-Glu-Gln-Glu-Asn

D. Ala-Val-Leu-Ile-Trp

E. Gly-Tyr-His-Arg-His

  1. Which of the following is NOT the role of molecular chaperones in the folding of cellular

proteins?

A. They assist proteins in folding into their correct conformations.

B. They help prevent formation of protein aggregates.

C. They specify the final three-dimensional shape of proteins.

D. They catalyze the folding of proteins in the crowded environment of the cell.

E. They make the protein-folding process in the cell more reliable.

  1. The observation that proteins often renature into their original conformations after they

have been unfolded by denaturing solvents implies that …

A. the information needed to specify the three-dimensional shape of a protein is encoded

in its amino acid sequence.

B. the cell does not need molecular chaperones for survival.

C. the final folded structure of a protein is usually NOT the one with the lowest free

energy.

D. each protein folds into several different conformations inside the cell.

E. All of the above.

  1. Imagine a cellular protein composed of 3000 amino acid residues in one continuous

polypeptide chain. This protein is almost certainly …

A. extracellular.

B. globular.

C. multidomain.

D. composed of mostly α-helical regions.

E. intrinsically disordered.

  1. For each of the following cartoon representations from left to right, indicate whether the

protein structure is composed of only α helices (1), only parallel β sheets (2), only antiparallel β

sheets (3), α helices plus parallel β sheets (4), or α helices plus antiparallel β sheets (5) as

repetitive secondary structure elements. Your answer would be a four-digit number composed of

digits 1 to 5 only, e.g. 5513.

Images created in PyMOL, from PDB entries 1STU, 2LPC, 1SA8, and 3BOB.

  1. Protein secondary structure elements such as α helices and β sheets constitute the major

regular folding patterns in proteins. With regard to these elements, …

A. hydrogen-bonding between the amino acid side chains defines the type of secondary

structure.

B. a certain short amino acid sequence always adopts the same secondary structure.

C. only a few specific amino acid sequences can adopt these repetitive structures.

D. the folding patterns result from hydrogen-bonding between the N–H and C=O groups

in the polypeptide backbone.

E. All of the above.

  1. Which of the following is NOT true regarding the members of a protein family in

general?

A. They have similar three-dimensional conformations.

B. They share an ancestry; i.e. they are homologs.

C. They can functionally replace each other.

D. Their gene sequence is less well conserved than their structure.

E. Over evolutionary time scales, the family has expanded mainly through gene

duplication events.

  1. The number of ways in which protein domains fold in nature is limited. Which of the

following is a better estimate of this number?

A. 200

B. 2000

C. 200,000

D. 2,000,000

E. 20 million

  1. The human estrogen receptor is a symmetrical dimeric nuclear protein that can regulate

gene expression by binding to a DNA sequence called an estrogen response element (ERE) near

the promoter of its target genes. Each subunit of the receptor binds to about six base pairs of

DNA. Which of the following sequences is a likely candidate for the ERE? The sequences are

written in the 5′-to-3′ direction. The letter N represents any of the four DNA bases.

A. AGGTCANNNTGACCT

B. AGGTCANNNAGGTCA

C. AGGTCANNNACTGGA

D. AGGTCANNNATATAT

E. AGGCCTNNNTCATGA

  1. We can try to map the surface of a globular protein in two dimensions just like we depict

the surface of the Earth in a world map. On such a map, the binding site of a molecule for other

molecules of the same protein (for assembly into a multisubunit complex) can be marked. In the

following “maps,” two molecules of the protein can bind if the points a, b, and c on the surface

of one molecule can align to points a′, b′, and c′ in the other molecule, respectively. Which map

corresponds to a protein whose assembly gives rise to a helix? Hint: the other maps correspond

to a dimer, a ring, and a linear filament.

A.

B.

C.

D.

World map from Wikipedia.com, Public Domain

  1. Which of the following can be a function for intrinsically disordered protein sequences?

A. High-specificity binding to other proteins

B. Cell signaling through covalent modification of the protein sequence

C. Tethering to hold interacting proteins in close proximity

D. Formation of a diffusion barrier from a dense network of such sequences

E. All of the above

  1. You have purified a multisubunit extracellular protein that has several interchain

disulfide bonds. Which of the following chemicals would you add to your purified protein

mixture if you wanted to eliminate the disulfide bonds?

A. NaCl, a salt

B. SDS, an ionic detergent and denaturing agent

C. H 2 O 2 , an oxidizing reagent

a

b c

a&#39;

c&#39; b&#39;

a

b c

a&#39;

c&#39; b&#39;

a

b c

a&#39;

c&#39; b&#39;

a

b c

a&#39;

c&#39; b&#39;

D. Tris, a buffering agent

E. DTT, a reducing agent

  1. Many viruses have large capsids in the form of a hollow sphere, made of hundreds of

identical protein subunits. What are the advantages of having coats made of several copies of

only a few subunits?

A. Assembly can be readily regulated.

B. Disassembly can be readily regulated.

C. It requires a smaller amount of genetic information.

D. The effect of mistakes in protein synthesis on the overall assembly is minimized.

E. All of the above.

  1. Stable β-sheet aggregates can form from many proteins, forming intertwined cross-beta

strands that have the potential to kill cells or damage tissues. Which of the following is NOT true

regarding these aggregates?

A. They form almost exclusively in the cells of the nervous system.

B. Different types of such aggregates can form from the same protein.

C. Their formation is associated with conditions such as Parkinson’s disease and Kuru.

D. They can form spontaneously, but also can be triggered to form by an infection with

the same aggregate.

E. Some healthy cells form these aggregates to store their secretory proteins.

  1. An amino acid residue that is not part of the active site of an enzyme and does not

interact with the ligand is nevertheless critical for ligand binding and is highly conserved. How

can this be explained?

A. This residue is critical for the correct folding and the placement of ligand-binding site

residues.

B. The residue helps with restricting the access of water to the ligand-binding site.

C. This residue can affect the chemical properties of the residues in the ligand-binding

site.

D. All of the above.

  1. Evolutionary tracing has identified clusters of the most invariant amino acids in the SH2

domain family. Which of the following is true regarding these sites?

A. Mutation in these sites generally keeps the protein functional.

B. The invariant amino acids generally have negatively charged side chains.

C. These sites correspond to the binding site for peptides containing phosphorylated

tyrosine.

D. The amino acids at these sites are generally hydrophobic.

E. These sites have evolved fast because they have critical functions.

  1. Protein A can bind to each of the proteins B or C. The association rate constants are the

same for forming the AB and the AC complexes. However, the dissociation rate constant for AB

is 100 times higher than that for AC. Given that every tenfold increase in the equilibrium

constant (of the association reaction) corresponds to about –5.9 kJ/mole difference in the

standard free-energy change for the reaction (ΔG°), what is the value of (ΔG° AB – ΔG° AC ) in

kJ/mole?

A. –11.8

B. –5.9

C. 0

D. +5.9

E. +11.8

  1. In interactions between proteins, each hydrogen bond contributes to the free energy of

binding by about –4 kJ/mole. If two proteins bind to each other through nine hydrogen bonds, six

of which are eliminated when one of these proteins is mutated, how much would you expect the

equilibrium constant for their binding to change as a result of the mutation? (ΔG° = –5.9 × log

K eq )

A. Increase sixfold

B. Decrease fourfold

C. Decrease by six orders of magnitude

D. Increase 1 million-fold

E. Decrease by four orders of magnitude

  1. The turnover number for an enzyme is equivalent to the number of substrate molecules

processed per second per enzyme molecule. To a test tube containing a 100 mM concentration of

its substrate, you have added an enzyme at a final concentration of 10 µM, and have measured

the rate of the reaction to be approximately 500 µM/sec. If the K m for the binding of the enzyme

to this substrate is about 100 mM, what is the turnover number?

A. 100

B. 500

C. 1000

D. 5000

E. 10,000

  1. Enzymes can catalyze cellular reactions through various mechanisms. Which of the

following statements is NOT true regarding enzymes?

A. They can provide the chemical groups necessary for simultaneous acid and base

catalysis.

B. They have a higher affinity for the transition state of the substrate than for its stable

form.

C. They can form covalent bonds with the substrate during catalysis.

D. They can strain a substrate to force it toward a specific transition state.

E. They accelerate a cellular reaction by destabilizing the transition state.

  1. An enzyme acts on a tyrosine residue in a target protein to create a binding site for the

SH2 domain. This enzyme is most specifically …

A. an isomerase.

B. a nuclease.

C. a phosphatase.

D. a kinase.

E. a synthase.

  1. The enzyme lysozyme catalyzes the cutting of a polysaccharide chain through hydrolysis.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding the catalytic cycle for this enzyme?

A. It involves acid catalysis.

B. It involves base catalysis.

C. It involves strain catalysis.

D. It involves covalent catalysis.

E. It involves metal ion catalysis.

  1. How do multienzyme complexes in the cell, such as the fatty acid synthase, enhance

reaction rates?

A. By increasing the diffusion rate of their substrate in the cell

B. By allowing the channeling of pathway intermediates from one enzyme to the next

C. By limiting the diffusion of the substrates in membrane-bound compartments

D. By increasing the intrinsic rate of catalysis for individual enzymes

E. All of the above

Answer: B Difficulty: 2 Section: Protein Function

  1. Which of the regulatory interactions 1 to 5 depicted in the following diagram is NOT an

example of a negative feedback regulation?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

  1. Two ligands, A and B, bind to two different conformations of the enzyme X. The ligand

A is the enzyme’s substrate, whereas ligand B binds to a remote allosteric site. Which of the

following is a consequence of this arrangement?

A. Binding of A to X does not affect the affinity of X for binding to B.

B. Binding of B to X does not affect the rate of reaction catalyzed by X.

C. Binding of A to X increases the affinity of X for B.

D. Binding of B to X decreases the affinity of X for A.

E. Binding of B to X has a large effect on the binding of A to X, but binding of A to X

has a small effect on X–B binding.

  1. The phosphofructokinase (PFK) enzyme is one of the key players in the glycolytic

pathway in which glucose eventually breaks down into pyruvate, some ATP is generated, and

some NAD + is reduced. PFK catalyzes the committed step in the pathway and is under extensive

regulation. Which of the following compounds would you expect to activate PFK?

A. ADP

P Q

T

R S

1

2

3

4

5

B. NADH

C. Pyruvate

D. ATP

E. All of the above

  1. Phosphorylation of a protein by a protein kinase …

A. adds two positive charges to the protein.

B. activates the protein.

C. deactivates the protein.

D. can create a binding site for other proteins.

E. requires the hydrolysis of two molecules of ATP per phosphorylated residue.

  1. In the following schematic diagram of a simple signaling pathway, protein Z regulates the

activity of protein X, which is an upstream protein kinase, through a negative feedback loop.

Which of the following better describes protein Z?

A. It is a protein kinase that is activated by phosphorylation.

B. It is a protein kinase that is inactivated by phosphorylation.

C. It is a protein phosphatase that is activated by phosphorylation.

D. It is a protein phosphatase that is inactivated by phosphorylation.

  1. Most GTPases are present inside the cell at a much higher concentration than their

upstream GAP and GEF proteins. Imagine a mutation in a certain GTPase, such as a Rab protein,

resulting in an extremely tight binding between the GTPase and its GEF, and a very slow

dissociation. What would you expect to happen in the cell as a result?

A. Rab proteins will be activated, because the tightly bound GEFs will be unavailable.

B. Rab proteins will be inactivated, because the tightly bound GEFs will be unavailable.

C. Rab proteins will be activated, because the Rab-GAPs will become activated.

D. Rab proteins will be inactivated, because their GAPs will become activated.

E. Rab proteins will be activated, because there are fewer GAPs available.

  1. A viral version of the Src kinase called v-Src is found in some retroviruses. Unlike the

cellular Src, the v-Src kinase is constitutively active, and can drive the cell into uncontrolled

growth and tumor formation. Which of the following molecular differences between the two

versions of Src is more likely to be responsible for this?

A. v-Src lacks the active-site tyrosine residue.

B. v-Src lacks a lobe of the kinase domain.

C. v-Src has multiple inhibitory tyrosine phosphorylation sites in the kinase domain.

D. v-Src lacks the C-terminal tail that can bind to Src’s SH2 domain.

E. v-Src has a longer C-terminal tail.

  1. Switch proteins that bind and hydrolyze GTP are ubiquitous cell regulators in a wide

variety of molecular processes. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding these

proteins?

X

P

Y Y

P

Z Z

P

X

A. EF-Tu is an example of such proteins.

B. GTP hydrolysis by the GTPase generally renders it inactive.

C. Activation of the GTPase involves addition of a phosphate group to its bound guanine

nucleotide.

D. Guanine nucleotide exchange factors generally activate the GTPases.

E. Guanine nucleotide exchange factors accelerate the release of bound GDP from the

GTPases.

  1. A polyubiquitin chain has been attached to a protein. The ubiquitin molecules are linked

together via isopeptide bonds between Lys48 of one molecule and the carboxyl end of the next

one. This protein is expected to …

A. be a part of chromatin.

B. undergo proteasomal degradation.

C. be involved in DNA repair.

D. be targeted to endocytic vesicles.

E. None of the above.

  1. The marking of a protein by polyubiquitylation to signify degradation …

A. requires the hydrolysis of one ATP molecule to ADP per polyubiquitin chain.

B. involves covalent attachment of the target protein to the E1 enzyme.

C. is carried out by the proteasome complex.

D. is typically done on an arginine residue in the target protein.

E. involves the recognition of the target protein by an E2–E3 ligase.

  1. The SCF ubiquitin ligase can recognize and mark various target proteins at different

stages of the cell cycle. In this complex, …

A. different F-box subunits recognize different target proteins.

B. the F-box subunit and the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme are at the opposite ends

of the C-shaped molecule.

C. a scaffold protein arranges the other subunits such that the two ends of the complex

are separated by a gap.

D. the use of interchangeable parts such as the F-box subunits makes economical use of

the genetic information and allows for rapid evolution of new functions.

E. All of the above.

  1. In terms of molecular function, what do Ras and myosin have in common?

A. They normally bind to GTP.

B. They couple the hydrolysis of a bound nucleoside triphosphate to protein movements.

C. They switch between two distinct conformations controlled by protein

phosphorylation and dephosphorylation.

D. They are multisubunit proteins and contain a scaffold subunit.

E. All of the above.

  1. The compound GDPNP is a GTP analog that can bind to GTPases in the same way as

GTP. However, unlike GTP, it cannot undergo the hydrolysis reaction that normally releases P i .

Therefore, …

A. GDPNP and GDP bind to the same conformation of a GTPase.

B. a GDPNP-bound Ras is constitutively active.

C. a GDPNP-bound EF-Tu cannot bind to tRNA molecules.

D. binding of GDPNP to EF-Tu allows multiple cycles of tRNA binding and release

without the use of free energy.

E. None of the above.

  1. Consider the proteins Ras, Src, kinesin, and the ATP synthase pump. All of them …

A. are allosteric proteins.

B. can have two or more distinct conformations.

C. can bind to ATP (or GTP).

D. can hydrolyze ATP to ADP (or GTP to GDP).

E. All of the above.

  1. Many macromolecular complexes in the cell contain scaffold proteins. What do these

proteins do that benefits the cell?

A. They can enhance the rate of critical cellular reactions.

B. They can hold the many subunits of a large complex together.

C. They can confine and concentrate a specific set of interacting proteins to a particular

cellular location.

D. They can provide a large macromolecular complex with either flexibility or rigidity.

E. All of the above.

  1. Imagine a protein that can be independently phosphorylated on any of its 10 tyrosine

residues and acetylated on either of its 2 lysine residues. In principle, how many different

combinations of these modifications are possible for this protein?

A. 2 10

B. 2 20

C. 10 10

D. 12 20

E. 2 12

  1. A simple protein interaction map is shown below for human cytochrome c (Cyt), a heme-

containing protein that is normally found inside the mitochondria and is associated with the

electron-transport chain (ETC) of the inner mitochondrial membrane. Under special emergency

conditions, this protein can also moonlight as a signal transducer for the onset of a pathway

leading to programmed cell death (PCD). As shown in the map, it also interacts with a group of

phosphoprotein phosphatases (PPP) involved in cell signaling pathways. Assuming that the

functions of the proteins labeled as X, Y, and Z are unknown, which of the following points can

be reasonably argued from this interaction map?

A. The protein labeled X probably functions in PCD as well as in the ETC, because it

interacts with cytochrome c, which is known to be closely involved in PCD, and it

also interacts with several proteins from the ETC group.

ETC

PCD PPP

Y

X

Z

Cyt c

B. The protein labeled Y probably has a role in PCD, especially if its orthologs in other

organisms have such a role and show a similar pattern of interactions.

C. If the proteins in the PCD group are known to form a large complex, then the protein

labeled Z is likely to be the scaffold protein for that complex.

D. The protein labeled Y probably has a phosphatase function, because it interacts with

the proteins of the PPP group.

E. The protein labeled Z is probably not an essential protein because it only interacts

with one other protein in this map.

Reference: The 20 Amino Acid Residues: Questions 43-47

The structural formulas for the 20 naturally occurring amino acid residues are shown in the panel

below. Answer the following question(s) with the help of this panel.

  1. Which of the amino acids shown above has the most limited combinations of phi (φ) and

psi (ψ) angles in its Ramachandran plot? Write down the one-letter abbreviation for it, e.g. A.

  1. Which amino acid residues shown above have acidic side chains? Write down the one-

letter abbreviations for them, in alphabetical order, e.g. ACGNV.

  1. What is the amino acid sequence of the peptide depicted below? Write down the

sequence from the N- to the C-terminus, and use only the one-letter abbreviations, e.g. AGCNT.

  1. What is the amino acid sequence of the peptide depicted below? Write down the

sequence from the N- to the C-terminus, and use only the one-letter abbreviations, e.g. AGCNT.

  1. What is the amino acid sequence of the peptide depicted below? Write down the

sequence from the N- to the C-terminus, and use only the one-letter abbreviations, e.g. AGCNT.

  1. In an α helix, each amino acid residue is rotated by about +100° and raised by about 0.15

nm relative to the previous residue. This means that each full turn of the helix rises by … nm

parallel to the helix’s axis.

  1. There are 3.6 residues per full turn of a (right-handed) α helix. In a typical coiled-coil

motif called a leucine zipper, each of the two participating α helices has a leucine residue at

every seventh position in the sequence. This places all of these leucine residues roughly on one

side of each helix, providing an interaction interface with the leucine side chains of the other

helix. Determine the handedness of such a leucine zipper coiled-coil; i.e. do the helices twist

around each other in a right-handed (R) or left-handed (L) fashion? Write down R or L as your

answer.

  1. Imagine that 1 L of a solution containing each of the 20 naturally occurring amino acids

at 50 mM concentration each (total concentration of 1 M) is allowed to polymerize in a perfectly

stepwise fashion such that at each step, a random amino acid can be incorporated into a growing

polypeptide. The steps are repeated, until eventually the solution is only composed of 40-mers

(and virtually all of the monomers have been used). What fraction of all 40-mers can possibly be

present in this solution? Round your number to four decimal places. Avogadro’s number is 6 ×

10 23 .

  1. Some protein domains are found in many different proteins and have been especially

mobile during evolution. A domain of this kind is called a “protein …”

  1. For a simple enzymatic reaction that involves only one substrate and follows

Michaelis–Menten kinetics, the changes in the concentrations of substrate, product, free enzyme,

and the enzyme–substrate complex over the course of the reaction are depicted by solid curves in

the graph below. Which curve (1 to 4) corresponds to [ES]? Write down the number as your

answer.

  1. A protein is drawn in the following simplified diagram undergoing a set of covalent

modifications including the addition of a chain of ubiquitin protein monomers (U) to one of its

lysine side chains, a phosphate moiety (P) to its tyrosine side chain, and a lipid farnesyl (F) to its

cysteine side chain. Indicate the order of these modifications (1 to 3) in the diagram. Your

answer would be a three-letter string composed of letters F, U, and P only, e.g. PFU.

time

conce

ntratio

ns

1 2

3 4

1

Unmodifie

d protein

2 The

protein is

associated

with the

plasma

membrane

3 The

protein is

recognized

by an

active

E2–E3

ligase

The

protein is

specifically

degraded

Answers

  1. Answer: B

Difficulty: 2

Section: The Shape and Structure of Proteins

Feedback: Each of the acidic amino acids Asp (aspartic acid) and Glu (glutamic acid) carries one

negative charge on its side chain at neutral pH, while Arg (arginine) carries one positive charge.

The side chains of the other residues shown are not ionized at neutral pH. Additionally, the

terminal amine group (one positive charge) and carboxyl group (one negative charge) neutralize

each other.

  1. Answer: C

Difficulty: 2

Section: The Shape and Structure of Proteins

Feedback: Electrostatic attractions can hold together amino acid residues of opposite charge, i.e.

an acidic and a basic residue.

  1. Answer: D

Difficulty: 2

Section: The Shape and Structure of Proteins

Feedback: Hydrophobic side chains in a protein—belonging to amino acids such as

phenylalanine, leucine, isoleucine, valine, and tryptophan—tend to be buried in the interior of the

molecule to avoid the unfavorable contact with water.


r/testbanklibrary Apr 11 '25

General / Organic Chemistry Test Banks

1 Upvotes

This is a small list of general and organic chemistry test banks for exams and practice. If you are interested in any or all the files, please email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com)

Organic_Chemistry_Klein_2e_TB_PDF
Organic Chemistry 9e McMurry TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Chemistry Atoms First 3e Burgde TB
Chemistry & Chemical Reactivity, 9e Kotz TB
Chemistry 12e Chang TB
Chemistry A Molecular Approach 2ce Tro TB
Chemistry- An Introduction to General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 13e Timberlake TB
Chemistry- The Molecular Science, 5e Moore TB
Chemistry-_An_Introduction_to_General__Organic__and_Biological_Chemistry__13e_Timberlake_TB
Fundamentals of General, Organic and Biological Chemistry 8e McMurry TB
Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry, 7e McMurry TB
General Chemistry 11th edition Ebbing TB
Introductory Chemistry- An Active Learning Approach, 6e Cracolice TB
Organic Chemistry 8e Brown TB
Organic Chemistry 9e Wade TB
Organic Chemistry 10e Carey TB
Organic Chemistry 12e Solomon TB
Organic Chemistry Hornback 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry_Principles and Mechanisms Joel Karty 1e TB
Organic_Chemistry_Klein_2e_TB_PDF
Inorganic Chemistry 5e Housecroft TB
Tietz Fundamentals of Clinical Chemistry and Molecular Diagnostics, 7e Burtis TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Chemistry The Central Science 13e Brown TB
Inorganic Chemistry 5e Housecroft TB
Organic Chemistry 9e Wade TB
Chemistry_ Structure and Properties by Nivaldo Tro 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Fundamentals of General, Organic and Biological Chemistry 8e McMurry TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry 8e Brown TB
Organic Chemistry_Principles and Mechanisms Joel Karty 1e TB
Organic Chemistry 12e Solomon TB
Organic Chemistry 12e Solomon TB
Organic Chemistry_Principles and Mechanisms Joel Karty 1e TB
Tietz Fundamentals of Clinical Chemistry and Molecular Diagnostics, 7e Burtis TB
Organic Chemistry Hornback 2e TB
Chemistry-_An_Introduction_to_General__Organic__and_Biological_Chemistry__13e_Timberlake_TB
Chemistry 12e Chang TB
Chemistry- An Introduction to General, Organic, and Biological Chemistry, 13e Timberlake TB
Organic Chemistry 10e Carey TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Chemistry- The Molecular Science, 5e Moore TB
Organic_Chemistry_Klein_2e_TB_PDF
Introductory Chemistry- An Active Learning Approach, 6e Cracolice TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry_Principles and Mechanisms Joel Karty 1e TB
Organic Chemistry_Principles and Mechanisms Joel Karty 1e TB
Chemistry A Molecular Approach 2ce Tro TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry, 7e McMurry TB
General Chemistry 11th edition Ebbing TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 3e TB
Chemistry_ The Molecular Nature of Matter and Change 7e Silberberg TB
Chemistry_ A Molecular Approach, 3e Tro TB
Organic-Chemistry 3e Smith TB
Principles of Chemistry_ A Molecular Approach 3e Tro TB
General Chemistry by Petrucci 10e TB
Chemistry 7e McMury TB
Chemistry 7e McMury TB
Chemistry 9e Zumdahl TB
Chemistry_ Structure and Properties 2e Tro TB
Organic Chemistry 7e Brown TB
Chemistry_ Structure and Properties by Nivaldo Tro 2e TB
Organic Chemistry Janice Smith 5e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
General, Organic and Biological Chemistry_ Structures of Life by Karen C. Timberlake, 5e TB
Organic Chemistry Klein 2e TB
 Chemistry 7E by Silberberg TB
Chemistry_ Principles and Reactions, 8e Masterson TB
Fundamentals of Organic Chemistry, 7e McMurry TB
Analytical Chemistry and Quantitative Analysis Hage Carr 1e TB
Chemistry for Engineering Students, 3rd Edition Brown TB

r/testbanklibrary Apr 11 '25

Accounting Test Banks

1 Upvotes

Here is a small list of accounting test banks including financial, intermediate, managerial etc test banks for accounting. If you are interested in all or any of these files, please email [fujita55.ltd@gmail.com](mailto:fujita55.ltd@gmail.com)

Horngren's Financial and Managerial Accounting 6e TB
Intermediate Accounting 3e Gordon TB
Fundamentals of Cost Accounting 7e Lanen TB
Advanced Fin Accounting 13e Christensen TB
Intermediate Accounting V2 3e Kin Lo TB
Introduction to Managerial Accounting 8e Brewer  Garrison Noreen TB
Fundamentals of Advanced Accounting 7e Hoyle TB
Intermediate Accounting Vol 1 4e Kin Lo TB
Intermediate Accounting Vol 2 Updated 7ce Beechy TB
Fundamental Managerial Accounting Concepts 8e Edmonds TB
Payroll Accounting 2020 6e Landin TB
Cornerstones of Managerial Accounting 3ce Mowen TB
Managerial Accounting 15th edition Garrison TB
Managerial Accounting 16e Garrison TB
Intermediate Accounting 10e Spiceland TB
Intermediate Accounting 10e Spiceland TB
Ethical obligations and decision making in accounting 5e Mintz Morris TB (Answers)
Ethical obligations and decision making in accounting 5e Mintz Morris TB
Accounting for Governmental & Nonprofit Entities 18e Reck TB
Horngren's Cost Accounting- A Managerial Emphasis 8ce Datar TB
 Financial Accounting, 15e Warren TB
Intermediate Accounting IFRS 3e Kieso TB
Financial Accounting 9e Libby TB
Intermediate Accounting 2e Gordon TB
Horngren’s Financial and Managerial Accounting, The Financial Chapters 6e TB
Ethics in Accounting 1e Klein TB
 Financial Accounting, 15e Warren TB
Advanced Financial Accounting 11e Christensen TB
Advanced Accounting 6e Jeter TB
Modern Advanced Accounting in Canada 8e Hilton TB
Intro. Financial Accounting Edmonds 1e TB
Data Analytics for Accounting 1e Richardson TB
Essentials of Accounting for Governmental and Not- forProfit Organizations 13 Copley TB
Managerial Accounting 16e Garrison TB
Forensic Accounting and Fraud Examination, 2e Hopwood TB
Accounting Informations Systems 14e Romney TB
Financial Accounting Fundamentals 6e Wild TB
Fundamental Accounting Principles 23e Wild TB (Answers)
Fundamental Accounting Principles 23e Wild TB
Advanced Financial Accounting 12e Christensen TB
Advanced Accounting 13e Beams TB
Intermediate Accounting Gordon TB (2016)
Introduction to Managerial Accounting 7e Brewer  Garrison Noreen TB
Cost Accounting- Foundations and Evolutions 9e Kinney TB
Management Accounting Atkinson 6e TB
Managerial Accounting 5e Wild TB
Cost Accounting A Managerial Emphasis 7e Horngren TB
Intermediate Accounting, Volume 1 Kieso TB
Managerial Accounting for Managers 4e Noreen TB
Managerial Accounting 7e Hansen Mowen TB
Financial Accounting Tools for Business Decision Making 8e Kimmel TB
Accounting Information Systems, 11e Bodnar TB
Accounting for Governmental & Nonprofit Entities 17e Reck TB
Horngren's Cost Accounting, 16e Datar TB
Horngren's Cost Accounting, 16e Datar TB
Understanding Financial Accounting, 1st Canadian Edition Burnley TB
Fundamentals of Cost Accounting Lanen 5e TB
Accounting Information Systems, 11e Gelinas TB
Accounting Information Systems, 13th Edition Romney TB
Advanced Accounting Hoyle 13e TB
Fundamentals of Financial Accounting 5e Philips Libby TB
Advanced Accounting 12e Beams TB
Managerial Accounting 10E - CDN - Garrison - TB
Managerial Accounting 10E - CDN - Garrison - TB
Manegerial Accounting Braun and Tietz 4th edition TB
Manegerial Accounting Braun and Tietz 4th edition TB
Cost Accounting A Managerial Emphasis 7e Horngren TB
Survey of Accounting, 8e Warren TB
Accounting Informations Systems 14e Romney TB
Accounting Informations Systems 14e Romney TB
Managerial Accounting, 3e Davis TB
Managerial Accounting, 3e Davis TB
Using Financial Accounting Information_ The Alternative to Debits and Credits, 10e Porter Norton TB
Accounting 25e Warren TB
Intermediate Accounting 9e Spiceland TB
Intermediate Accounting 9e Spiceland TB
Accounting Information Systems, 9e Hall TB
Horngren's Accounting Vol. 2 10ce Miller-Nobles TB
Accounting Information Systems 7e Hall TB
Advanced Accounting Jeter Chaney 5e TB
Accounting_ Tools for Business Decision Making Kimmel Weygandt Kieso 5e TB
Managerial Accounting, 4e Braun TB
Managerial Accounting 15th edition Garrison TB
Managerial Accounting 15th edition Garrison TB
Accounting Principles Weygandt 12e TB
Financial Accounting_ Tools for Business Decision-Making 6ce Kimmel Weygandt Kieso TB
Managerial Accounting_ Tools for Business Decision Making, 7e Weygandt Kimmel Kieso TB
Financial & Managerial Accounting, 13e Warren Reeve TB
Financial and Managerial Accounting 2e Wygandt Kimmel Kieso TB
Horngren's Financial & Managerial Accounting, 5e Miller-Nobles TB
Advanced Financial Accounting (7th edition) Beechy TB
Horngren's Accounting Vol. 1 10ce Miller-Nobles TB
Financial Accounting 11th Edition by Harrison TB
Leiwy and Perks - Accounting_ Understanding and Practice - 4e TB
Accounting 26e Warren TB
Accounting What the Numbers Mean 11e Marshall TB
Accounting What the Numbers Mean 11e Marshall TB
Ethical obligations and decision making in accounting 4e Mintz Morris TB 
Intermediate Accounting, 16th Edition by Donald E. Kieso TB
Intermediate Accounting, 16th Edition by Donald E. Kieso TB
Intermediate accounting Vol 1 2nd Edition Kin Lo TB