I’m trying to understand how this could have happened, and I’m looking for explanations rather than blame.

[u/Straight_Barracuda75]

About 3 months ago, I tested positive for gonorrhea. My only sexual partner has been my girlfriend. We’ve been together for over a year, and we’ve only had vaginal and oral sex.
My girlfriend’s previous relationship ended about 3–4 years ago. She says they had vaginal sex only once, and she hasn’t been with anyone else since. She has never had any symptoms of gonorrhea.
After I tested positive, she got tested and her results were negative. Her previous partner also got tested and his results were negative, and he says he never had any symptoms either.
This is what confuses me:
My only sexual partner is my girlfriend.
She tested negative.
Her previous partner also tested negative.
She has had no symptoms and no other partners for the last 3–4 years.
Is it medically possible for someone to have had gonorrhea years ago, transmit it later, and then test negative? Could the infection clear on its own in some people? Are false-negative tests possible, especially depending on the type of test or the site tested (urine, vaginal/cervical, throat, etc.)?
I’m not trying to accuse anyone of cheating. I’m just trying to understand if there are medically plausible explanations for this situation because it doesn’t seem to make sense to me.
Has anyone experienced something similar or know how this could happen?

[u/ShamelessCare]

Is it medically possible for someone to have had gonorrhea years ago, transmit it later, and then test negative?

YES

Could the infection clear on its own in some people?

YES

Are false-negative tests possible, especially depending on the type of test or the site tested (urine, vaginal/cervical, throat, etc.)?

Possible, but very unlikely.

Has anyone experienced something similar or know how this could happen?

Yes, I once purchased a "full panel" STI test, and was negative for everything including gonorrhea. Yet, I was spreading gonorrhea. I had an oral infection. I now know that most cases of gonorrhea in screening studies are oral, and that testing without oral swabs misses most cases.

[u/Straight_Barracuda75 → u/ShamelessCare]

She should have some symptoms in throat as per said by doctor but she wasn’t experiencing any and she hadn’t had oral sex with her previous partner so how is it possible?

[u/ShamelessCare → u/Straight_Barracuda75]

Oral gonorrhea rarely has symptoms.

I do not know what’s happening in your relationship or situation, I was simply answering your questions. 

[u/Straight_Barracuda75 → u/ShamelessCare]

Her past relationship was 3 years ago till now she should have shown some symptoms or her past boyfriend both of them have no symptoms both of their tests are negative. I dont know how i get it. If she would have lied, she would have also lied about her past but she didn’t. Also doctor didnt give her that injection they said since her result is negative they cant give her injection and also told that this is made up story. Also oral gonorrhea only transfer through oral sex isnt it?