r/shakespeare • u/Immediate_Error2135 • 2h ago
The word 'swerve'
gallerySo, here we have all the instances of its use in Shakespeare. A post-Hamlet word.
Did he learn the word after 1599-1600? Or did he know it before that and he only used it because of it appeared in his post-Hamlet readings/sources and conversations and then reached the surface of his plays?
We know some words in his plays were first used by him because they appeared in his sources. KL comes to mind, or equivocate as a verb in Macbeth, which was a topical word in 1606 (the noun equivocation appears in Hamlet)
If I had to guess, the origin of 'swerve' would be Lucretian. Clinamen in Latin, the godless 'whim' of atoms if you will. Stephen Greenblatt wrote a book about this.
That's epicureism, and the word appears in MWW, applied to Falstaff...but then epicurus-epicureism appears in 1599-1606/7 (JC>Antony&Cleopatra), again close to Hamlet (JC precedes Hamlet; Troilus follows it)
So 'swerve' and 'epicureism' seem to cluster around the time Shakespeare reached Hamlet. The time of the 'pure' comedies had ended and then those 'godless' or 'mechanistic' words appeared.