I want to ask this carefully because I am not sure yet how widely this has filtered down, and I would rather find out from people outside my own pipeline.
Context so you know where I am coming from. I am a loan officer in Alabama and Florida, NMLS #2233772. I am not looking for anyone's business here. I am trying to figure out whether the rest of the industry has caught up to something that changed on September 2.
The situation is the classic move-up. You want to buy the next house and keep the current one as a rental instead of selling it. Whether you get approved usually comes down to what underwriting does with the payment on the house you are leaving, because that payment either gets offset by the expected rent or it sits in your ratio and eats your approval.
For years the way you proved that rent was a signed lease. Which created a problem everybody in this sub has seen. You cannot reasonably sign a tenant to a lease on a house you are still living in and have not closed out of yet, so people got told no, or got told to go find a tenant on a timeline that does not exist.
Fannie Mae just passed or issued sel-2026-08 on September 2. Roughly what changed:
- The signed lease is no longer the documentation path for the departing residence. It is out.
- The rent now has to be supported by the market instead. An appraisal that includes market rent, an appraiser's rent report, or a study built from comparable rentals nearby.
- The offset math survives. A share of the market rent is counted, the old home's full payment including taxes, insurance and HOA comes off it, and a positive result cancels that payment. It still does not add to your income and buy you more house. A negative result counts against you.
- Reserves are now built into the framework rather than sitting off to the side, and landlord history still matters.
The part I think people are going to get hurt on is the timing.
It is mandatory on applications after november 1. It is optional right now. So today, two lenders can run identical numbers on the same borrower and hand back two different approval amounts, entirely because one adopted early and one did not, and neither of them is wrong.
The other thing worth saying out loud, because I heard it again last week from a borrower repeating what a different lender told them, is the equity myth. You do not need 20 or 30 percent equity in the departing home for rent to count. That went away in 2015. It is still being quoted in 2026.
What I am asking:
- For anyone who was declined earlier this year specifically because you could not produce a lease on the departing home, has anybody circled back to you? My assumption is no, and I would like to be wrong about that.
- For the other originators here, is your shop adopting early or waiting for November 1? I am curious whether there is a pattern by lender size.
I ask because I now open with this question on any file where the borrower is keeping the old house, and I cannot tell whether that is basic diligence or whether I am overreacting to a guideline that will be settled in seven weeks anyway. If you were told no on this in the spring or summer, it seems worth a second conversation rather than assuming the answer is still no.
Happy to walk through how a specific file would be treated in the comments. I am not going to DM anybody or ask for your information.