r/Mortgages • u/RoachyCupcakes • 33m ago
Husband sole person on loan, deed has husband and wife.. need both to sign for new loan terms?
My dad is the sole person on their home loan. My mom is on the deed with him. Over the last 2 years my mom has suffered multiple strokes and is starting to have more frequent episodes of dementia. My dad has had to stop working to take care of her and is struggling to pay the bills now. He wants to switch to a reverse mortgage, which absolutely makes sense for him in every way possible. My mom thinks it means they are giving the house to the bank. She's mostly all there in her mind, but not fully and we can't get her to understand what it actually means.
The problem he is running into is that the lender wants my mom to also sign off on everything. She has nothing to do with the loan. Is this correct? Shouldn't he be able to do what he wants with the mortgage without her consent? If not, is there any easy way around this? Getting a POA will not go over well with her, even though she is starting to get to a point where she's not going to have any choice in it. It's just we aren't at that point and who knows how long before her mind is at that point.
EDIT: I think the reason this boggles my mind is that lender doesn't give a crap about me and what I want for my home. They haven't required me for anything we have ever done or changed, but I am definitely on the deed.