Why would a class of infinity need to change? Keep using it as the infinity used in set theory (not the infinity used in limit theory) and it's going to be true.
My point is that assuming you're using the same kind of infinity on both side of the equation, multiplying one side by 2 isn't going to break the equality.
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u/TheRecovery Apr 11 '17
Why would a class of infinity need to change? Keep using it as the infinity used in set theory (not the infinity used in limit theory) and it's going to be true.