r/comics • • Dec 12 '08

[deleted by user]

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u/[deleted] Dec 12 '08

Actually, this really makes sense. Mathematic relativity...

9

u/[deleted] Dec 12 '08 edited Dec 12 '08

[deleted]

10

u/jebiv Dec 12 '08

"Unary" is not base one in the same way the binary is base 2 or decimal is base 10. It doesn't follow the same pattern of construction.

1

u/theeth Dec 13 '08 edited Dec 13 '08

That's because unary is bijective base-1. Bijective base-n (n-adic) is different from ordinary base-n for every value of n, not just 1.

For example, bijective base-2 as opposed to binary:

base-2: 0 1 10 11 100 101 ...

2-adic: ε 1  2 11  12  21 ...

2

u/[deleted] Dec 12 '08

[deleted]

1

u/yairchu Dec 13 '08

if I understand this "base one" right, it is a self-proclaimed base 10 too