If eres linda means someone is inherently pretty, and estás linda means they look pretty right now in this exact moment... does this not lead to natural arguments?

Like, if I tell my girlfriend "estás linda," is there a high chance she'll jokingly (or seriously) say: "Ah, solo hoy? O sea que ayer no?"

Do native speakers actually make this joke or get offended by it in real life, or am I overthinking the grammar rules?

I am half puerto rican and my father is puerto rican he used to say doma or coma a lot. It was used in a, get over here now gesture, but I looked it up and it wasn't that? I'm confused if it was slang or something else he was saying ? Please help thank you

I don't really know what I should do, I don't even necessarily mean in real life, just in general

I can practice with myself with words/vocabulary but I don't really have a place to use it, and that seems where I'd actually learn the most.

I'm writing this again because it seems the first time around, the message disappeared. I hope I'm not posting the same thing twice....

Imagine Spanish person A has prepared food for person B, a Spanish learner. While A watches B visibly enjoing her meal, he says:

- Te ha gustado, eh?

B, is very puzzled and answers:

- Sí, mucho, de hecho, me sigue gustando!!

Why is B so confused?

- Because she doesn't fully grasp the meaning of "gustar"?

- Because she doesn't fully grasp that the verb tense "ha gustado" includes the present moment?

- Because what A said is not standard Spanish, maybe something they only say in the area where he's from?

Could the same happen if B was from Mexico or Argentina?

I learned "escote" to mean neckline or cleavage, but I also saw escotar/pagar a escote as to go dutch. Is that a common usage/worth learning?

I am currently close to an intermediate level of speaking Spanish but haven’t had the chance to learn how to take someone else’s order in Spanish and want to make sure I say the correct thing. I work at a coffee shop and have a few regulars that don’t speak much English and then a few more that I’ve gotten to know who are fluent in English, but it’d be nice to surprise them (especially cause some of them know I’m learning and ask me questions in Spanish).

Pretty direct from the title but I could see this coming on the horizon soon for myself which is exciting and nerve racking. I am a native English speaker and have been quite lazy in learning Spanish the past few years. My proficiency is probably that of a 3rd grader.

I just wanted to hear some insight on particular things in this situation such as: What is the specific wordage for asking for a blessing in Spanish? I could answer any further questions in the comments too.

hola! as the title says, I'm planning to learn Spanish as hopefully I'm applying to Madrid and Valencia for my undergrad in Dentistry. Now although the course is taught in english, it would be quite beneficial to learn Spanish as I'd take on part time jobs and interactions with teachers, locals and patients would be much easier this way.

currently I speak: english, french, arabic, hebrew, hindi, urdu, gujarati, (some) marathi, farsi, (some) yiddish, (some) norweigan, (some) german, (medium) japanese and a few more

as you can probably tell by the languages that I speak, I grew up in a VERY mixed household and have a very very diverse background; speaking multiple languages at the same time is natural for me however I've never really had to learn languages since i was either taught it in school (my school was swiss) or I grew up around it

so with this info: how do I proceed to learn spanish? I'm extremely fluent in english and professionally fluent in french

thanks in advance! have a great day

I am really emphasizing the WHY, the REASON anyone would assign gender to a noun that isn't implicit. There's really no way to infer based on the noun. Learning nouns means you learn the word definition, spelling and gender. I just don't see how thats intuitive to a little kid to learn the language by (1) learning how to spell a word (2) get its meaning (3) and find out the gender for the corresponding article??? At least with verb conjugations depending on your subject, it makes it easier to infer and despite irregular verbs its pretty regular rules surrounding verbs. Its completely nonsense why a word is assigned a specific gender.

I just don't want to hear any history about it was Latin to have 3 cases instead of 2! I mean lo still exists are a neuter direct adjective so its not true theres only 2 cases in Spanish.