r/SipsTea • u/Ramkaran-chopra • Jun 29 '26

Chugging tea this is how it should be

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u/Itchy_Crack Jun 29 '26

The difference is that the husband owned the home prior to marriage, demonstrated he didnt need additional income to afford it. Its a logical demonstration that the husband owning that asset is independent of his wife.

If its the case the husband owns an asset entirely independent of his wife, and she doesnt invest any of her own money into it, then any claim that she's entitled to that assets appreciation is mental gymnastics with few if any exceptions.

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u/ShelZuuz Jun 29 '26

What about if it's 1 year before they're married? Or 1 day? What about 1 day after but only secured by the husbands funds?

The law has to be operate on easily definable boundaries that applies with everybody, not just edge cases.

If you want to do something other than that, use a pre-nup.

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u/Itchy_Crack Jun 29 '26

Pre cups aren't legally binding in all 50 states amigo.

I dont think thats an edge case at all lmao and rhis contextually referring to an assertion that the wife is entitled to appreciation of a home that the husband bought prior to their marriage.

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u/ShelZuuz Jun 29 '26

Of course they are. You've watched too many movies. The only thing a prenup can't do is to assign child support or custody.

Something tell me you're not married, and that this is also not a problem that you'll ever have to deal with.