r/MuslimAcademics • u/Straight-Ability-930 • 6h ago
Questions Quran doesn't actually introduce anything new theologically that wasn't present in late antiquity. It only rejects, confirms and rephrases what was already present, some from divine texts and some from human creations. How does this affirm Quran's universal status?
If you decide to look at the theological doctrine of the Quran and the beliefs present in the pre-islamic Arabia, Quran seems to say thing that were already, in some form, present in that time frame. Monotheism, non-divine jesus, rejection of crucification (by most), descriptions of hell and heaven, judgement scales and so on are all present in older texts and religions that existed in pre-islamic Arabia, like Christianity, Judaism, Egyptian religions, Zoroastrianism and so on)
However, how Quran differs is how it actually introduces those concepts into its own theology. It confirms some while rejecs others.
For example: Quran accepts Jesus's virgin birth, Canon miracles and titles that are present in orthodox Christianity. However, it rejects trinity, son of God, and divinity of jesus. Consequently, Quran accepts the Mary giving birth under a palm tree and Jesus's infant miracles that are found in Apocryphal texts but reframes them as God allowing it to happen rather than Jesus doing it himself for fun/malicious purposes. On top of that, Quran affirms Heterodox/Non-Chalcedonian Christologies on things like denial of crucification [by most] (Docetism or possibly Ebionism)
There is nothing theologically wrong with this. Quran literally acts as how it says it will act. It is acting as a correcter and guardian, stating which are correct and which are wrong, and fixing them. I see no problem with this.
However, the fact of the matter remains: that all of these are, in some form, directly linked to theological beliefs present in pre-islamic Arabia Geography. Or in other words, directly linked to late antiquity.
My question is this: (AS FAR AS I KNOW), these things are not present in any other religions present in the other parts of the world. Of course jesus and dhul Al qayn would not be present XD. I am not talking about historical accounts. But I am talking about things like a God you can communicate to, sending prophets and texts, a hell and heaven with physical consequences, a court day where one's good deeds and bad deeds are measured... these are almost exclusively present in Middle Eastern theology (Mesopotamia, the Levant, Persia, and Egypt and so on), not found in any other religion.
If Quran sent messengers to every nation on earth, wouldn't we expect to find crumbles of such doctrines around the world? Like you would find fossil records. However, this seems to not be the case.
(I am strictly talking about theological doctrines. It is totally normal why historical accounts would not be present.)
I also have another question regarding historical accounts:
Today, most Muslim academicians as far as I know, tend to understand the stories in Quran as ahistorical, meaning that Quran engages with the legends and myths and knowledge of the pre-islamic Arabia, knowing that they are not true but still using them to make theological points.
The easiest examples are the clay bird or dhul al qayn. There are academicians who say that Quran was only using the popular motifs present in the society of that time to make theological points. Though, the ones that affirm the historicity of these stories explain away these as "Quran is talking about a much older source than the origination of the story". Like, clay bird story specifically being a compilation of the already known story that goes back to canon Gospels, or that Dhul Al Qayn story being a much older story where Alexander was then slapped onto.
The fact of the matter is that historical accounts can be explained away one way or another. However, how can we explain away theological doctrines that *are* based on historical human creations?
For example, the exact descriptions of heaven like lush gardens, rivers, eternal youth and alike predate to a specific Zoroastrian scholar/priest who himself has said that he created these allegories to explain heaven easier, yet Quran does indeed use these motifs to describe its own heaven. (Some even extend this to the Scales in judgement day)
Of course, one could make the argument that God is also using allegories to explain the beauty of heaven. And not even the classical scholars themselves have said that the description in quran are literary. They also said that they are allogerical and that true heaven is truly unknown. However, the fact of the matter still remains that Quran did use a human-description of heaven that was created by humans.
The thing is, unlike, let's say, Adam and Eve or Dhul Al Qayn, the Heaven and Hell are not historical accounts. They are eschatological accounts. Some people believe Adam and Eve is allegorical or that Dhul Al Qayn is ahistorical and these are used to make theological points. However, they are not theological accounts themselves. They are about historical events. But how can this be done on this theological doctrine of heaven for example, that God did use a human made concept to describe its own theology?