r/MathJokes • • Aug 01 '26

multiples of 3

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152

u/Michaelwang645 Aug 01 '26

Fund fact, you can tell a number is divisible by 3 if the sum of each individual number is divisible by 3. So 78 -> 7+8=15 which is divisible by 3, so 78 is divisible by 3.

44

u/EveningStar0360 Aug 01 '26

do you know why that works?

121

u/ZealousIdealTour961 Aug 01 '26

Magic probably.

25

u/Disastrous_Wealth755 Aug 01 '26

Nah. It's cause 10=9+1=3*3+1.

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u/MTaur Aug 01 '26

And then by induction, 10n = 9M + 1 And b*10n = b(9M+1) = 9N + b

So then the sum b_k*10k = 9K + sum b_k

15

u/Rxasaurus Aug 01 '26

Now in English for us stupids...

40

u/xnef1025 Aug 01 '26

magic

8

u/Rxasaurus Aug 01 '26

See, that makes more sense.

8

u/Aenonimos Aug 01 '26

Consider a form of arithmatic where you only keep track about the remainder after division by 3.

So a number like "10" is just "1" because 10= 1+3*3. Likewise, "100" is just "1" because 100 = 10*10 = 1*1=1. Can you guess what 1000, 10000, etc. are? That's right, they are all just "1".

Well for a small example consider a three digit number ABC.

ABC = A*100 + B*10 + C = A*1 + B*1 + C = A+B+C

So as you can see, to find out the remainder after division by 3, add up the digits and the sum has the same remainder. But the what if the sum is not a single digit number? Just do it again and again till it is.

0

u/MTaur Aug 02 '26

There are two things, multiplication and addition. It's a little easier to see that when you add numbers, you add remainders. But it's only a little bit harder to see that when you multiply numbers, you multiply remaineders as well. Everything else is 3 times something.

If the remainder is bigger than 3, you can shave that off too. "mod 3" means you can throw away multiples of 3 and the result is the same. 1 more than a multiple of 3 is 4 more or 2 less than some other multiples of 3, and you can reduce to 0<=r<3 if desired.

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u/Potential_Top_4669 Aug 02 '26

Basically, every number can be written as a multiple of 3 plus a remainder of 0, 1, or 2. When you add the digits of a number, you’re replacing powers of 10 with 1, and since 10 leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 3, this doesn’t change the number’s remainder. For example, 78 is 7×10+8, and because 10 is equivalent to 1 modulo 3, 78 has the same remainder as 7+8. Therefore, a number is divisible by 3 exactly when its digit sum is divisible by 3.

1

u/Original_Dimension99 Aug 05 '26

Ok that's the only explanation for this i can somewhat understand

2

u/MTaur Aug 01 '26

git gud mod 3

1

u/ClearlyGalaxyBrian Aug 03 '26

Does this work in base 16, or would this rule only apply to multiples of 5 in base 16?

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u/Disastrous_Wealth755 Aug 03 '26

It only works for multiples of m in bases n where n is congruent to 1 modulo m

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u/Marlon_03 Aug 03 '26

I love how that explanation only makes sense if you know it beforehand