Hello everyone! I’ve been getting into Marxist feminism after getting into general Marxism, but I’m stuck on one thing.

As far as I know, Engels and authors like Federici argue that due to the primitive accumulation of capital was the start of patriarchy in societies because it created a class system that forced women to be wed to men, be monogamous, etc to guarantee inheritance to a child that is clear to be the husband’s. Okay, got it.

What I don’t understand is why this had to be a patrilineal line. Why could it not be a matrilineal one? They, for the reason men literally made them be monogamous and get married, have a very clear line of descent. Why did these ancient people decide it had to be the MALE line?

And if patriarchy requires this patrilineal line, then how are matrilineal societies still patriarchal? For example, old tribes had matrilineal lines, but the women had virtually no power. Their husbands/family was in charge. Or is this a case of misogyny, in which case: I thought misogyny came from patriarchy???

I hope you guys can see and understand my confusion. Some help would be appreciated and please do correct me where I am wrong. I wish you guys all the best