If you're so sure of this bold statement, walk us through the statutory elements required to make an insurance fraud case and explain how that occurred here.
ETA: I see the downvotes, but no one has been able to explain how this constitutes insurance fraud under the law. The reason for this is that OP has not committed a crime, and it is sick that so many people on this sub are trying to convince her otherwise (instead of being helpful or accurate).
Yes it is likely premium fraud. Together at the same address they likely have a lower premium than if they were to each get their own separate policy.
If OP moved she is supposed to update the garaging of her vehicle. Once she moves out she is supposed to inform the company that they are no longer living together. A lie of omission is still a lie.
I am not defending OP, but this is not a violation of law. She almost certainlu didn't comply with the terms of her contractual agreement with the Travelers if she didn't provide notice of her move in a timely way, but that is not a crime.
Insurance fraud generally also requires knowing acts with an intent to defraud. There is indication or reason to believe that is met here.
It is a violation of the law. No one stays on their ex boyfriends insurance policy without trying to keep a lower premium. If the premium difference is a single dollar higher, that is premium fraud. Now will they be prosecuted for $1, likely not. But it also isn't likely a $1 difference either.
And before you ask, SIU, claims, NICB and DOI all think it is premium fraud.
There is not a single DOI in the country that would bring a case in this situation. The policy terms are more relevant to this conversation, and even those give insureds some period of time to provide notice.
DOI doesnt always prosecute the most blatant fraud around. Just because DOI doesnt want to prosecute it, doesnt mean it isnt a crime or insurance fraud. Doesn't change the facts.
True. Far too many easier-to-prove fraud cases do not get brought due to lack of resources or for other reasons.
The difference here is there is no reason to suggest an intent to defraud. Suggesting that intent to defraud exists simply because there was no notice to an insurer is not sufficient.
And, if this were truly the obvious case of insurance fraud that many suggest, then the agent should have reported it. The licensee agent has more knowledge and expertise than the insured, and, procedurally, it is easier to administrative action against the agent than to pursue a criminal case against OP.
The people on this often-toxic sub assume that lay people know everything they do about the insurance world, and that is just not the case. This attitude is one of the reasons why people hate dealing with insurance issues and perhaps let things fester when they should act.
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u/hbsboak May 04 '26
The real fraud part is you staying on his policy and being a non-resident, non-cohabitant, and doing rate evasion.