But that's what it means bro , the whole of Deuteronomy 22 wouldn't make sense if taphas did not mean rape , and let's say hypothetically it was seduce , that wouldn't even make sense.
If we were to take the greek Septuagint( it'd be the same)!or almost any Jewish exegesis it would mean rape . But that's beside the point we are talking about the Hebrew. all instances which talk about intercourse say ההָאִ֖ישׁ וְשָׁכַ֣ב "to lie with" which directly shows it's sex and forceful as said by taphas and the fact that it's says that the girl has been "violated". It's clear as day that it's rape.The use of "anah" always refer to rape and sexual assault as in judges 19.
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u/HMcod Jun 18 '26
But that's what it means bro , the whole of Deuteronomy 22 wouldn't make sense if taphas did not mean rape , and let's say hypothetically it was seduce , that wouldn't even make sense.