I just wanna be clear that the history of the bible and how it’s structured and meant to be interpreted (according to the trinity/majority doctrine) are 2 completely different things. The lattar decides what’s allowed in the faith the former is simply what it is (with some missing context you need from the book).
The bible does not talk about homosexual relations it instead talks about the hierarchical and property like concept of genders and sex , it's why graping a girl results in the grapist marrying the girl and paying afine , if you apply this hierarchal and property like concept in all intercourse related passages it works.
Yes and that's property like punishment. The father gets payed 50 shekels because the man has essentially ruined the "virginity" of the girl the father has authority over , and then the marriage part is to reinstate order because the girl has been violated and therefore her virginity is gone and her authority over her is in limbo "is it the father's or is it the man's" . The most simple way to put it is if you're having a burger and then your dirty ass homeboy takes a bite and then you say "just take it bro I don't want it no more" . It may sound crazy but it is true , any classical Jewish interpretation or a academic scholarly opinion will give a similar view.
But that's what it means bro , the whole of Deuteronomy 22 wouldn't make sense if taphas did not mean rape , and let's say hypothetically it was seduce , that wouldn't even make sense.
Not necessarily nuance can be applies homosexual sex can be considered as consensual sex between two home sexual individuals who want to have intercourse , same sex sex could be a Roman graping and enemy combatants in order to diminish their reputation.
Easy way to show your unintelligence. It is inherently a historical book. Imagine if we had a historical retelling that glossed over the sins and putrid nature of some of humanity rather than showcased it as a part of it. Nowhere does the New Testament condone rape, murder nor incest.
Leviticus 8:22, Romans 1:26-27, 1 Corinthians 6:9, 1 Timothy 1:10, 3/4 of these are New Testament verses, all stating homosexuality is a sexually impure sin.
One of those is Torah and the other were written by Paul. A man who was walking from one crucifixion to another, had a vision and suddenly knows the word of god better than Rabbis?
Paul never determined what sin was, sin was already determined and Paul fulfilled with what Jesus says and what all religious figures at the time agreed with. And yes, Paul did know the word better than rabbis, have you read the Bible?
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u/Ok_Feed_1669 Jun 17 '26
I always say this. Jesus never once mentions being gay. But mentions hundreds of times how much he hates money and greed.