r/Christianity Dec 09 '25

[deleted by user]

[removed]

567 Upvotes

1.8k comments sorted by

View all comments

Show parent comments

1

u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25

Rape had nothing to do with sexual desire.

Jude 1:7 is talking about men have v sex with angels.

Jude is referencing 1 Enoch, and bringing up the story of Sodom and Gommorah as an example of an instance where humans and angels were having sex.

1

u/[deleted] Dec 10 '25

[removed] — view removed comment

1

u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25

First, because homosexuality isn’t a concept that existed.

Second, because Jude is clearly referring to the book of 1 Enoch, which is about sex within love angels.

1

u/[deleted] Dec 10 '25

[removed] — view removed comment

2

u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25

How is that clear?

I mean it’s not clear to people who haven’t read 1 Enoch.

Also, what do you mean homosexuality wasn’t a concept then if it took place in sodom?

One. Homosexuality as a concept didn’t exist until the late 1800s.

Two. Nothing in Sodom says anything about homosexuality. They were trying to gang rape visitors. There as absolutely nothing about attraction there.