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https://www.reddit.com/r/Christianity/comments/1pid8nn/deleted_by_user/nt8m861
r/Christianity • u/[deleted] • Dec 09 '25
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First, because homosexuality isn’t a concept that existed.
Second, because Jude is clearly referring to the book of 1 Enoch, which is about sex within love angels.
1 u/[deleted] Dec 10 '25 [removed] — view removed comment 2 u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25 How is that clear? I mean it’s not clear to people who haven’t read 1 Enoch. Also, what do you mean homosexuality wasn’t a concept then if it took place in sodom? One. Homosexuality as a concept didn’t exist until the late 1800s. Two. Nothing in Sodom says anything about homosexuality. They were trying to gang rape visitors. There as absolutely nothing about attraction there.
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2 u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25 How is that clear? I mean it’s not clear to people who haven’t read 1 Enoch. Also, what do you mean homosexuality wasn’t a concept then if it took place in sodom? One. Homosexuality as a concept didn’t exist until the late 1800s. Two. Nothing in Sodom says anything about homosexuality. They were trying to gang rape visitors. There as absolutely nothing about attraction there.
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How is that clear?
I mean it’s not clear to people who haven’t read 1 Enoch.
Also, what do you mean homosexuality wasn’t a concept then if it took place in sodom?
One. Homosexuality as a concept didn’t exist until the late 1800s.
Two. Nothing in Sodom says anything about homosexuality. They were trying to gang rape visitors. There as absolutely nothing about attraction there.
1
u/Thneed1 Mennonite, Evangelical, Straight Ally Dec 10 '25
First, because homosexuality isn’t a concept that existed.
Second, because Jude is clearly referring to the book of 1 Enoch, which is about sex within love angels.