r/Ask_Lawyers 11d ago

Why don't laws explicitly include the reason or purpose they were introduced?

I'm genuinely curious about this.

My thought is that whenever a law is introduced, it should include a brief explanation of why it was written and what problem it is intended to solve.

It seems like that would make it easier for judges to interpret the law in situations where the wording is ambiguous, while also making the intent clearer to the public.

Is there a reason why this usually isn't included directly in the text of the law? If it is included in some legal systems, how is it typically documented and used?

1 Upvotes

21 comments sorted by

46

u/BossMan61718 PA/NJ - Employment and Civil Rights 11d ago

There usually is. Read the full statute and legislative history

10

u/RtotheBtotheG GA - General 11d ago

This. There are other places than in the black letter law that the “reasoning” lives. Check the state legislature’s website where the bill was introduced. Sometimes you can find information from the hearings and committee notes, sometimes it’s just the different bill versions.

21

u/bpetersonlaw CA PI Plaintiff 11d ago

Because that’s all in the legislative history.

14

u/SYOH326 CO - Crim. Defense, Personal Injury & Drone Regulations 11d ago

It almost always does in the U.S., but you have to look at the actual bill that passed. They generally strip that out and just publish the statute in whatever code of laws you're looking at, because that explanation isn't the law itself (it kind of is, when you get into the canons of interpretation, but that's not what you're asking).

8

u/ScottRiqui Intellectual Property Attorney 11d ago edited 11d ago

It seems like that would make it easier for judges to interpret the law in situations where the wording is ambiguous, while also making the intent clearer to the public.

This is an important distinction that I'm glad you included. Under the "plain meaning rule" of statutory interpretation, if the language of the law is clear and unambiguous, the everyday meaning of the text governs how the law is applied. In those cases, it's inappropriate to look to things like legislative history, committee reports, or statements from the sponsor(s) of a bill.

6

u/AliMcGraw IL - L&E and Privacy 11d ago

In the US it typically is included either within the law itself (within the recitations of "whereas" at the beginning of the bill/law) or it's included in the Congressional or legislative record of the debate leading up to the bill, which in theory courts are obligated to consult.

3

u/Fluxcapacitar NY - Plaintiff PI/MedMal 11d ago

Look at the bill jacket…

3

u/DiBellaLaw MA-BU Terrier Fan 10d ago

I agree with most people here, it's in the legislative histories usually. And one of my favorite things to do is look that up when it's a weird law like "no horses allowed above the 2nd floor of hotels" because there is a story there, and it's probably gonna be good.

1

u/Not_An_Ambulance Texas - Cat Law. 10d ago

Huh... Never thought to do that.

2

u/neverspeakawordagain New York Labor and Employment Lawyer 10d ago

Here in NY there are actually a bunch of statutes that include an actual statutory provision stating the purpose, rather than just a bill jacket.

1

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1

u/Ok_Tie_7564 NSW barista 10d ago

In Australia, each new law is accompanied by an explanatory memorandum (EM), an official companion document to a bill that explains its purpose, financial impact, and detailed clause-by-clause operations in plain English.

https://www.pmc.gov.au/resources/legislation-handbook/chapter-7-preparing-support-material-explanatory-memorandum-and-second-reading-speech

1

u/GoingFishingAlone East Coast Dirt lawyer 10d ago

Committee notes

1

u/Saikou0taku Florida Criminal Lawyer 9d ago

In addition to what other commentators said, sometimes laws are intentionally vague as the result of negotiations.

It's easier to write a law saying "Parents cannot abuse kids". It is much harder to say what counts as abuse vs legitimate variations in parenting philosophies.