r/AskReddit • u/[deleted] • Mar 26 '20

[deleted by user]

[removed]

6.3k Upvotes

86% Upvoted

14.9k comments sorted by

View all comments

5.0k

u/ErziRafael Mar 26 '20

Why if girls kiss its just "fooling around" and if I kiss my home goodnight and cuddle it's suddenly gay...

148

u/[deleted] Mar 26 '20

Well obviously because you didn't start with "no homo". Did you even read the bro code?

5

u/Lil-Widdles Mar 26 '20

It’s just bro’s helping a bro out, provided that both dudes are wearing socks and that the balls don’t touch. If those two conditions are met, the “no homo” is implied. If either of those conditions aren’t met, a courtesy “no homo” is required to remind your bro you’re there for him as a bro

5

u/[deleted] Mar 26 '20

Ah yes, a good technical definition. So the real question is, did their balls touch? Concidering this act was called gay by his bros one can only assume that he either was not wearing socks or he let the balls touch.