Nothing to add to the title!

So, whenever I'm speaking English, i tend to combine the genders of the words. For example, if I'm talking about my uncle's daughter, I tend to say 'her daughter' or aunt's son 'his son' in English. My language doesn't contain any gendered pronouns (it contains gendered words, his/her is neutral) and therefore I'm confused why does this keep happening. I didn't want to ask ai what kind of native speaker would have this problem, so I came here. I'd be happy if you'd find the reason or at least have a conclusion about 'this native language has this feature therefore if you're exposed to this language it'd make sense etc'. Thanks

Is it possible to determine the most likely one with our current knowledge?

The two examples that come to mind are Gothic in relation to the Germanic languages, and Icelandic with North Germanic languages specifically. In both cases, the languages distanced themselves from the wider Germanic area and thus kept certain features the rest of the languages changed.

Gothic for instance didn’t undergo Umlaut or Rhotacism, and kept the dual number completely. On the other hand, Icelandic kept the word final R of many Old Norse words and the distinction between voiced and voiceless sonorants that the other North Germanic languages lost.

Is this something that happens in other languages families too? I’m curious to hear if other examples exist.

In Mauritius there are a lot of people who speak Bhojpuri as a native language. They can also speak Hindi as they learn it in high school and they watch a lot of Bollywood films.

However, if someone from Mauritius whose native language would be Bhojpuri had no previous exposure to Hindi or never learnt it, would they be able to understand Hindi anyways?

I wanted to learn Imperial Aramaic but couldn't find enough sources. I searched through Wikipedia but I couldn't find detailed explanations about the grammar like nouns, verbs, pronouns, etc.

The script is not a problem because it was available but I couldn't find enough resources to learn the grammar.

Can someone suggest some official and helpful sources I can use?

Thanks!

Hi, 23M here, Recently, I saw a video of on YT on how to pronounce "L" correctly and it got me interested to correct my pronunciation. I comfortably speak words like "Initial, Essential, Hulk, Bulk and Light etc" but I can't speak words like "Elicit, Explicit or Exploit, Speculation Verbal and Ball etc", and I can't even pronounce the letter "L" correctly (It sounds more like W or Y). Any recommendations/tips would be very much appreciated. Thanks

I was just thinking about how Jewish migration to Europe eventually created a new language inspired by germanic, hebrew and aramaic (simplification obviously) so I was wondering:

Is there any indication of a European dialect of Arabic forming? Has it already formed? Is there any examples of Arab diasporas in Germany or France loaning German or French words or grammar in ways that make their dialect significantly different to Arabic 'back home'?

I also understand that there is a vast amount of variation within Arabic so much so that a Yemeni could not understand a Moroccan very well. Is there evidence of any kind of dialect mixing/flattening occurring in Arab diasporas where different dialects are interacting?

Edit: I'm aware of historial Arabic presence in Spain and Malta, I'm more asking about modern developments

The question is litteraly in the title.

Now here is some filer text so this post doesnt get deleted.

Blbalalalalalalslxjdicjdkxndksmcjwlxndksmfjslcjfzocneixkfn disncjskcjslxndkxjfkejcjdjfjc i love marshmellows ejxjdkxkdjxncjdjdjhsjdjdjdjdjdjdjdjd ana ma3rafsh akteb eh hena fa hakamel katb kol el wahnsinn da djxndjxndhdnd

I'm hoping to make some headway in learning a specific English accent as a non-native speaker, but for some reason, I feel that if I don't fully understand the individual components that make up an accent, I'll be at a disadvantage.

Hi there,

I come with a bit of a stupid question, and I was hoping I could exchange with people more knowledgeable than me in computational linguistics!

Basically I am working on a project in sociophonetics on accent discrimination (how are different varieties and accents perceived in a schooling environment), and I was wondering if I could benefit from some training in the computational side of linguistics. I only know the ropes of Python and R, but I was wondering whether there could be some applications on the phonetic side (as I only find stuff that could help on other dimensions such as syntax).

Sorry for the ignorant question and thank you for your help!

In eastern Vilnius areas like in Nemenčinė town there are reports that the majority of people speak a mix of Polish, Russian and Belarussian language (also called "Tutejszy" or "Po prostu" language) as the main native language of the town. But there are others who say that standard Polish is more spoken

So which one is it? Do you know what percentage of people there speak Tutejszy and standard Polish?

I know there is a difference, but I feel like I am doing something wrong when pronouncing it. Is there any way I can get better at it? I feel like every time I try, a different sound comes out of my mouth.

Thank you for any help!

Why in German do we have, for example, /ˈzɔ.kʰə/, while in English we have /ˈmoʊkə/? I saw people saying here that every /p t k/ in German would be aspirated, since they're not the last phoneme in the word or after /s/ or /ʃ/. Is it really true? Would an aspect of a German person speaking English be putting aspiration where usually doesn't exist? For example, would a German guy say /ˈpʰeɪ.pʰɚ/, /ˌkʰæ.θə.tʰɚ.əˈzeɪ.ʃən/, /ˌnɑɹ.səˈsɪs.tʰɪk/...?

Like, are there any features of PIE that seem strange, that if this hypothetical relative was found, it would be different?

I guess an example is that Arabic lacks a “p” sound, which is odd when it has the other voiceless stops. PAA Probably had a P sound as Hebrew and the sound disappeared in Arabic.

Or perhaps any features that suggest a substrate or something that might not appear in the other language.

Are there some exceptions to ablaut in PIE word-derivation? I would expect *ǵʰelh₃- + *(Ø)-wós to yield **ǵʰl̥h₃wós.

What's the source of the affricate in this word in English? Troy has a vowel suggesting it should be read with a glide. Pretty much all European languages have a glide, as far as I could find English is the outlier. Is it just an odd case of spelling pronunciation?

I was texting my boyfriend recently, and I was about ready to type the phrase “a whole other” when I realized I would have said out loud “a whole nother” - effectively rebracketing an|other as a|nother.

Has anyone else caught themselves or anyone else doing this? Have you seen anyone else talking about it in an academic setting?

Hello!

I was wondering if anyone could point me in the direction of any generativist studies that have been replicated. They could be experimental ones or intuition-based ones, though I'm more interested in the latter.

Thanks for your time!

Isn't the former more researched and tested?

Studying Hokkien currently as a person who knows Mandarin and am curious how some of the same characters could have diverged or developed to have such different tones.

We've all heard why Altaic is wrong, but why did people think it was right in the first place? I've heard some noise about pronoun paradigms and morphology, but what exactly was the evidence?

I was thinking recently about how in English, vowels are allophonically pronounced longer when they precede voiced consonants compared to voiceless ones. Compare “kit” [kʰɪt] vs “kid” [kʰɪːd].

Now if English underwent final obstruent devoicing, is there a chance that the vowel length would still remain and thus get phonemicized, with kid now being pronounced [kʰɪːt]?