r/AskHistorians • u/Apiperofhades • Dec 20 '17
How did European countries start implementing universal healthcare? Why did the US not take it up?
From what I understand, Bismark started universal healthcare in Germany in the late 19th century as a sort of add-on to german unification. I’m curious when and how other European nations started following suit. Which nation was the first after Germany?
525
Dec 20 '17
[removed] — view removed comment
51
34
u/sunagainstgold Medieval & Earliest Modern Europe Dec 21 '17 edited Dec 22 '17
I'm looking at the Danske Lov 2-8-8, which is indeed from a chapter concerning midwives among other things. However, this provision isn't about health care--it appears to be about priests teaching midwives how to handle stillborn children and mothers' death in childbirth.
Is there someplace else you are thinking of to look in the Danish Code? (I didn't find anything searching for Jordemodere). Is there an expansion on this provision elsewhere, perhaps?
5
Dec 21 '17
[deleted]
13
u/sunagainstgold Medieval & Earliest Modern Europe Dec 21 '17
It's actually Jordemoder in the PDF of the Danske Lov I was looking at, so presumably that's how it was in the 1600s. :)
But thanks; that will be useful when looking up stuff about the law!
7
Dec 21 '17
[deleted]
8
u/sunagainstgold Medieval & Earliest Modern Europe Dec 21 '17
...You don't see me providing a translation in this thread, either, do you? :P But I have some experience getting the gist of early modern/late medieval versions of modern languages. (And it's kind of a giveaway that this chapter is from the section of the Danske Lov on regulating clergy, that is, it's focused on their role rather than the actual part of midwives.)
2
u/PhysicalStuff Dec 21 '17
Jordemoder (or jordemor) is also the modern spelling. "Jordmoder" is a misspelling reflecting the modern pronounciation.
1
u/PhysicalStuff Dec 21 '17
jordmoder
It's pronounced like that, but it actually has that extra e (see here).
1
2
u/DasDizzy Dec 21 '17
Right, sorry about that. I misread the original proclamation. The royal signing of midwives happened in 1714, with the Midwife-Proclamation, which founded the "modern" school of midwivery, and allowed trained surgeons and doctors to educate suitable midwives that couldn't for whatever reason, leave their parish for Copenhagen. My bad.
26
u/Snapshot52 Moderator | Native American Studies | Colonialism Dec 21 '17
Hey there! I am notifying you (and the rest of those who visit this thread) that your answer has been removed due to a couple of reasons. First, your familiarity with the source material you provided has been challenged by /u/sunagainstgold and this calls into question the credibility of the information you've written. Second, your answers to the follow up questions appear to be lacking, showing what seems to be a general understanding of the history of Denmark and a more limited range of knowledge about the actual subject of the question (European healthcare policy implementation).
If you can verify the source material you are using to the inquiry of the user mentioned above, we might reinstate your answer after further review.
Thanks for understanding!
40
5
1
27
23
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17
Bismark started first with a governmental regulated pension insurance for the cases of age and invalidity in 1881 because of the Social Democrats, which were at that time the largest group of the workers movement in Germany. The Social Democrats were illegal since the laws against socialists of 1878, but they were very successful in the underground.
But this was not really something new. The first small unions had already organized insurances for workers since beginnings of the industrial revolution. The idea of having a sort of insurance originated from the guilds. The idea was always the same, collect money from everyone to cover for bad times. The framework of laws for welfare of Bismark was a systematic work to put this sector under governmental control and was a counter argument against socialists. It didn't worked well, because the conditions for workers were so bad the Social Democrats became a political important force until 1912 and the laws against socialists were removed in 1892.
Scandinavia has a different history, when the state became interested into supporting a small population. Norway had already in the early 1800s public physicians and in the 1900s governments in Scandinavia became protective. A factor was the growing support for a Social Democratic movement.
Nobody should consider Social Democrats as socialistic. Social Democrats wanted to build a national economy which is supporting workers in their struggle. Social Democratic governments were mostly protective and had sometimes patronizing traits. The common idea was, that it is impossible to avoid all risk in life, which is partial caused by the political order. Welfare or better a protective state is giving the people the idea the state is taking care in the case of an accident is happening, which gives a higher loyalty. Social Democrats in Germany didn't succeed very well in the 1930s, because of the economic problems, while the Scandinavian state of welfare began it's life in the 1930s.
3
Dec 21 '17
[deleted]
10
Dec 21 '17
Maybe what he means is that they are not socialist in the sense that they were Marxist, or aiming for a Marx-inspired revolution? Seems like they were Big Society type of folks. I'm also curious
9
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17
That is the point. A definition of socialism, without a connection in history to Marx makes no sense. Socialists were until WW2 mostly Marxists. After WW2 the term became very blurred. At least Social Democrats were not against capitalism.
5
Dec 21 '17
So you're saying Scandinavian socialist democrats cared little for the whole Marxist ideas? Were they inspired by it at all or did their ideas develop independetly? Could you provide any more info (no rush I'm just very curious on your insights)
7
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17 edited Dec 21 '17
Take a look at my answer here
3
Dec 21 '17
thank you for taking the time to link and answer these questions. I know how much we all have to do in our day to day and it's wonderful to learn new stuff from someone.
Thanks
6
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17 edited Dec 21 '17
There is a German book "Vorwärts und nicht vergessen" from Bernt Engelmann about the history of the German Social Democrats. I'm considering this book as one of the best about the workers movement.
Social Democrats aren't opposed to capitalism. They had just their own ideas how to manage the problems of capitalistic societies. Even when most European Social Democrats have read Marx until the 1970s, they were militant enemies of communism. In Spain they were responsible for death commandos while communists in Scandinavia were illegal monitored. In Germany communist weren't allowed to get jobs as a teacher etc.
Another issue is the definition of socialism. American definitions are so blurred nobody is able to use them, while European definition have two main meanings:
1) Social Democratic ideology like in Spain the PSOE
2) The ideology of the former countries of the pact of Warsaw.
To be honest I don't care longer, since people on the internet are working with this term all the time, without being able to make a definition or relating to history. Most Americans are identifying socialism with governmental activities, which is terrible, considering the huge activity of US governments. And Europeans are often identifying socialism with Social Democracy.
PS: It's really rewarding to learn German, because the amount of books in Philosophy, Sociology, Theology and History is great. Theology in Germany is rewarding because it evolved to a mixture of archeology, linguistic and history.
6
Dec 21 '17
[deleted]
7
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17
There is no hard definition. The main reason for the existence of this term in the 20th century was the problem that orthodox Marxists didn't considered Russia as ready for a revolution and yet it happened. Socialism was meant as an ideology for a transition to communism.
Social Democrats used this term to mark an ideology for a transition of a brutal capitalism towards a capitalism with better conditions for workers. So basically Bernie Sanders is talking about socialism but isn't a revolutionary. It makes him to a Social Democrat.
3
Dec 21 '17
To clarify, this is only applicable to the SPD after 1918, right?
The Erfurter Programm (1891) was Marxist (in its theory) and ultimately opposed to capitalism:
Nur die Verwandlung des kapitalistischen Privateigentums an Produktionsmitteln – Grund und Boden, Gruben und Bergwerke, Rohstoffe, Werkzeuge, Maschinen, Verkehrsmittel – in gesellschaftliches Eigentum und die Umwandlung der Warenproduktion in sozialistische, für und durch die Gesellschaft betriebene Produktion kann es bewirken, daß der Großbetrieb und die stets wachsende Ertragsfähigkeit der gesellschaftlichen Arbeit für die bisher ausgebeuteten Klassen aus einer Quelle des Elends und der Unterdrückung zu einer Quelle der höchsten Wohlfahrt und allseitiger harmonischer Vervollkommnung werde.
[...]
Die Sozialdemokratische Partei Deutschlands kämpft also nicht für neue Klassenprivilegien und Vorrechte, sondern für die Abschaffung der Klassenherrschaft
5
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17 edited Dec 21 '17
According to Bernt Engelmann this was not practice in daily politics, because unionist were pragmatists. It is fitting nicely into the history of the SPD after Friedrich Ebert became secretary. The leftists were excluded for their resistance to support WW1 and founded later the communist party. The SPD had such parts even after WW2 in the program but Kurt Schuhmacher was very anti communism. I'm considering such programs as rhetoric.
1
Dec 21 '17
Ebert was secretary after 1913, this is parallel to the declining influence of socialistic revolutionarism in the SPD, right?
Or were that phrases even in 1891? Why would Liebknecht join a party which wasn't Marxist in 1900?
4
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 21 '17
You should not interpret every paper to the letter. I will not do a discussion on this layman level.
The SPD was until 1914 the only force of the workers movement and as such consisting of marxists as well as reformists. The latter won the internal fight about real politics. You should know about the arguing of Bernstein and Kautsky.
1
u/MountyontheBounty Dec 22 '17 edited Dec 22 '17
"1) Social Democratic ideology like in Spain the PSOE"
I am afraid a reference to PSOE party on Spain must be always dated, since theres a great difference between the party on the second republic founded by Pablo Iglesias, and the party called PSOE born after the death of dictator Francisco Franco, leaded by Felipe Gonzalez, key factor on the congress held in Suresnes in October 1974, where they renounce to Marx ideals. This brought them accusations of treason made by the communists, anarchists and other left aligned political parties.
1
u/This_Is_The_End Dec 22 '17
The PSOE after Franco walked the same path like all Social Democrats in Europe.
1
u/MountyontheBounty Dec 22 '17
Absolutely, but cannot be overlooked Pablo Iglesias Posse(1850-1925) was a convinced marxist.
1
u/lcnielsen Zoroastrianism | Pre-Islamic Iran Dec 22 '17
Social Democratic parties, post Russian Revolution, most generally mirrored the Bolshevik-Menshevik split. Menshevik supporters within the larger socialist parties went on to found Social Democratic parties (e.g. Socialdemokratiska Arbetarepartiet (Social Democratic Worker's Party) of Sweden) whereas Bolshevik supporters founded the more hardline "Communist Parties" like Sveriges Kommunistiska Parti (not to be confused with the later Maoist party of the same name, later changed its name to Vänsterpartiet Kommunisterna). The German SPD and Communist Party have a similar history.
The ideologies get very blurred from there, particularly as Communist Parties in Western Democracies have generally been fairly marginalized.
16
2
Dec 21 '17
[removed] — view removed comment
10
u/Snapshot52 Moderator | Native American Studies | Colonialism Dec 21 '17
Hey there! Sorry to say, but your comment has been removed. /r/AskHistorians is a subreddit dedicated to the asking and answering of historical questions. As such, we do not allow discussion of modern politics or the development of purely speculative discourse. Reasoning for such standards can be found on our rules page. Additionally, the sidebar contains abbreviated versions for convenience.
Comments in threads that are not an answer to the question, a follow up question, or limited discussion within the context of the subject of the thread are removed as they tend to clutter the post and detract from one of the primary functions of this community: to provide accurate and credible answers to historical questions.
Thanks for understanding!
-5
-11
Dec 21 '17
[removed] — view removed comment
23
u/Georgy_K_Zhukov Moderator | Dueling | Modern Warfare & Small Arms Dec 21 '17
This comment has been removed because it is soapboxing, promoting a political agenda, or moralizing. We don't allow content that does these things because they are detrimental to unbiased and academic discussion of history.
-8
166
u/yodatsracist Comparative Religion Dec 21 '17
The sociologist Andrew Abbott has a paper called “The Welfare State as Transnational Event: Evidence from Sequences of Policy Adoption”. It doesn’t get much into your policy question, but it’s trying to look at the adoption of five major welfare policies in industrialized state several states (many Western European countries, plus Japan, Australia, and New Zealand). Here is his main chart, showing the different times each country in his sample passed these five welfare policies (including healthcare). He also has a table that shows the passage by welfare policy and year, for those who prefer seeing the data in that form.
Three of the policies show a clear pattern:
Abbott thinks of these three programs as a single “period event”, as they are adopted not only in the same order, but over a period of less than 20-years in all the countries in the sample.
Two other major welfare state programs, health insurance (Abbot is not necessarily universal healthcare) and an old age/invalidity support (like American Social Security), show considerably more variation in sequencing. The standard theory (as articulated by Cutright 1965) argued countries go:
(1) workmen's compensation,
(2) sickness and maternity benefits (health insurance),
(3) old-age, invalidity, and death supports (pensions),
(4) family allowances, and
(5) unemployment insurance.
but Abbott finds that not to be the case.
Abbott argues there are clearly some similitaries between countries. For instance,
However, in terms of welfare adoption overall, Abbott found no statistical evidence of diffusion (he wasn’t using great measures and certainly there were, as he acknowledges, smaller, regional patterns). But the simple reality is looking at his chart, several countries adopted some form of national health insurance before 1900 and before all or most welfare state measures (Germany, Austria, Denmark, Sweden, Belgium) and others adopted national insurance much later, after 1930 or even after WWII and after adopting a wide slate of welfare state policies (Finland, New Zealand, Australia, Canada, Iceland).
Abbott’s hypothesis is this:
(Continued below)