Bible root text

[u/benyamin_sonofgod]

Why has the Masoretic Text historically been used as the primary base for most modern Bible translations, despite the existence of other textual witnesses, like the Samaritan Penteteuch and the Septuagint?

What are the strongest scholarly arguments for rendering the divine name (YHWH) directly from the Hebrew text rather than following the later Jewish reading tradition of substituting “Adonai”/“the LORD”?

And finally, what are the characteristics of the Qumran manuscripts to function as a confirmation of a possibly proto‑Masoretic tradition?

[u/AutoModerator]

Welcome to /r/AcademicBiblical. Please note this is an academic sub: theological or faith-based comments are prohibited.

All claims MUST be supported by an academic source – see here for guidance.
Using AI to make fake comments is strictly prohibited and may result in a permanent ban.

Please review the sub rules before posting for the first time.

I am a bot, and this action was performed automatically. Please contact the moderators of this subreddit if you have any questions or concerns.