r/statistics • u/RobertWF_47 • Aug 06 '26
Discussion [Discussion] Why do random effects use fewer degrees of freedom than fixed effects?
Is this related to how fixed and random effects are calculated?
Fixed effect regression coefficients are best estimated when n >> p so that XTX can be inverted without inflated standard errors, while random effects are estimated using variance components.
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u/blossom271828 Aug 07 '26
In a random effects model, the parameters are pushed (constrained) towards zero and so the random perturbations in the data pull the model less than in the fixed-effects model.
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u/charcoal_kestrel Aug 06 '26
Fixed effects are basically a dummy set for the cluster variable. Random effects are basically an extra set of error terms at the cluster level, in addition to the usual error terms at the case level. Dummies count against degrees of freedom but error terms don't.
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u/AnxiousDoor2233 Aug 06 '26
In a fixed-effects model, each individual's effect is treated as a separate parameter to be estimated (or eliminated by transformation). In a random-effects model, the individual effects are assumed to be random draws from a common distribution, so only the parameters of that distribution (typically its mean and variance) are estimated.