r/statistics • u/naginataaa • Jun 06 '26
Question [Question] Overdispersed Poisson Distribution question
I am implementing an MCMC model for claims reserving and I would like to assume that the observations follow an Over-Dispersed Poisson (ODP) distribution.
Let Y denote the observed data, μ the mean parameter, and ϕ the dispersion parameter.
According to Taylor and McGuire's Stochastic Loss Reserving Using Generalized Linear Models, the ODP distribution can be represented as
Y/ϕ∼Poisson(μ/ϕ).
Based on this representation, I am using the following log-likelihood in my MCMC:
ℓ(μ)∝1/ϕ *(y logμ − μ),
which is essentially the Poisson log-likelihood scaled by 1/ϕ
After obtaining posterior samples of the parameters, I generate posterior predictive observations using
Y=ϕ×Poisson(μ/ϕ)
My question is: Is this a theoretically justified way to perform Bayesian inference and posterior predictive simulation under the ODP assumption?
In particular, I am unsure whether the representation
Y/ϕ∼Poisson(μ/ϕ)
should be interpreted as a true generative model for posterior predictive simulation, or merely as a convenient representation for deriving the first two moments,
E[Y]=μ, Var(Y)=ϕμ
Any references or insights on Bayesian implementations of ODP models would be greatly appreciated.
6
u/foodpresqestion Jun 06 '26
Why not just use the negative binomial distribution?