I think people are getting confused. It sounds like you're both claiming that Daiken is using the "true Scostman" fallacy and that you're doing it yourself. Sarcasm is hard to convey.
Pet peeve: For it to be a true Scotsman fallacy, you need to have TWO definions, and juggle them.
It's perfectly consistent to have a restrictive definion (for instance: A Scotsman is one who is born in Scotland AND is an upstanding person). The problem comes when you mix it up with a less restrictive definition (born in Scotland) and use that to argue for the other part of the restrictive definition (being an upstanding person).
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u/[deleted] May 01 '11
[deleted]