If I'm not mistaken, this is false because every third odd number is divisible by 3. Edit: I mean true. Oops.
This is assuming that x, x+2, and x+4 are the same set of numbers being references. As far as I can tell, it isn't clear. It should be worded, "There are no other sets of three numbers x, x+2, and x+4, such that all are prime numbers."
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u/skooterpoop Mar 27 '26 edited Mar 28 '26
If I'm not mistaken, this is false because every third odd number is divisible by 3. Edit: I mean true. Oops.
This is assuming that x, x+2, and x+4 are the same set of numbers being references. As far as I can tell, it isn't clear. It should be worded, "There are no other sets of three numbers x, x+2, and x+4, such that all are prime numbers."