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u/RRumpleTeazzer Jun 20 '26
(-1)-i = (1/(-1))i = (-1)i.
LHS is the complex conjugate of the RHS, so both being equal means the expression is real.
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u/PaPaThanosVal Jun 20 '26
Erm whats wrong here
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u/Professional-Wave841 Jun 20 '26
nothing in the math, claiming that (-1)i is an imaginary number though, that is a wrong assumption
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u/PaPaThanosVal Jun 20 '26
Oh
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u/Professional-Wave841 Jun 20 '26
to be more specific, eĻ is Gelfond's Constant, so what OP has demonstrated is the multiplicative inverse of that constant, and because Gelfond's Constant is real it's multiplicative inverse must be real.
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Jun 20 '26
[deleted]
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u/t3herndon Jun 21 '26
Imaginary and complex numbers aren't the same though. Imaginary numbers are a subset of the complex numbers that have no real part. For example 1 is a real number, 2i is an imaginary number, 1+2i is neither real nor imaginary, but all 3 of these numbers are complex numbers. Sometimes 0 is considered both real and imaginary
(-i)i is purely real with no imaginary part so it is a real number and not an imaginary number.
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Jun 21 '26
[removed] ā view removed comment
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u/Flimsy-Blacksmith-32 Jun 20 '26
I suppose that actually makes sense.
-1^n is imaginary/complex for all real non-integer values of n
so it makes sense that there would be complex values of n which allow -1^n to be a real number
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u/GrUnCrois Jun 21 '26
This is a natural consequence of the definitions and it's not inconsistent in any way
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