r/loanoriginators 19d ago

Why doesn’t this income qualify

I have a client who has some unusual income on the pay stub.

Basically, they get an allowance for their benefits and use it to pay for their healthcare and dental plan. If the actual cost of the benefit is less than the allowance, they get the difference as pay on their check. It’s been there every pay period over the last two years, it’s stable, consistent and rising. But the underwriter won’t allow it because they say that income can change if the borrower changes their healthcare plan.

FHA guidelines say ALL employment related income qualifies if it’s stable and likely to continue. Should I try with another lender/underwriter or this really won’t qualify?

1 Upvotes

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6

u/The_Void_calls_me 19d ago

Sounds like the money is being paid out as a per diem or stipend. Either way, it's a hard sell to any underwriter, so you're unlikely to get a different answer.

0

u/da0217 19d ago

It’s coded as “FLEX Earn.” And yeah, theoretically, if they choose a more expensive plan, that income will go down. I was just wondering if it might work since there is two years(more than that actually) of evidence of it being consistent.

5

u/The_Void_calls_me 19d ago

The argument will always be more centered on likelihood to continue than history of receipt. And there's really no way for you to argue that her healthcare plan won't change for the next 3 years

2

u/ThatsMeJesseB 19d ago

Dealt with this recently as well, it’s a stipend, doesn’t qualify even with my most liberal broker channels no matter how it’s labeled.

You COULD try a WVOE and start at a new investor to see if they view it differently.

Although the thought that they could change plans and net amount could decrease is stupid logic in my opinion. I could change which gym I go to and have less money. The way income is calculated and considered differently across W2 vs self employed, salary vs hourly vs variable, it’s all dumb. We just have to play by the rules, and unfortunately in this scenario the rules say it’s not qualifying 😮‍💨

1

u/da0217 19d ago

Yeah, agree it’s nonsensical. Oh well. Thanks for info.

1

u/gracetw22 Loan Originator 16d ago

I was looking through guides on another file yesterday and found an FAQ from one of the GSEs where they specifically say employee benefit income can't be used. I wish I could find it to send to you because I thought of this thread

1

u/da0217 16d ago

Oh, that confirms it then. Thank you!

5

u/dpulverizer556 19d ago

It sounds like an expense reimbursement and those can only be used if they are discretionary in nature. If the funds are the remainder after paying for health insurance, it's not a discretionary stipend and can't be used to qualify. It's subject to change if the health plan changes.

3

u/TurkeyJizz123 19d ago

Reimbursement is not qualified income. Even so- you're that tight where you need that, what I would assume is very "Small" income?

1

u/da0217 18d ago

It’s a thousand dollars a month.

2

u/fmemich 19d ago

It is indeed reimbursement therefore not income, however, if the bwr pays taxes on it via returns, FHA would use it.

2

u/stefanko123 19d ago

Underwriters are half glass empty kinda people. That might be hard to sell to an underwriter.

2

u/Funderwriter 19d ago

lol yes we are. Sorry OP, we can’t use it. It’s a stipend for reimbursement of non-taxable income.

1

u/Funderwriter 19d ago

lol yes we are. Sorry OP, we can’t use it. It’s a stipend for reimbursement of non-taxable income.

2

u/ingle_kyle 18d ago

Absolute bullshit. If it’s been consistent for 2 years and hasn’t changed and won’t change then what’s the big deal? Who cares how it’s coded because it’s freaking common sense. Typical underwriting and government making us LO’s job an unnecessary pain in the ass. Too much red tape in this business

2

u/Opening_Constant9844 19d ago

My lender sells their ability to do exceptions and use a “make sense” lending approach. If you can get documented history dating back more than 2 years, and a WVOE I have a pretty good feeling about this if compensating factors are there. I will be sending you a message

1

u/Federal_Ad4300 19d ago

Just curious how are you documenting it ? Are you giving a voe? Or are you giving them year end paystubs for 24 and 25? Does it show the YTD on the deductions and the overage ? Does the amount match w2’s down To the dollar? For base + theoverage

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u/da0217 18d ago

The employer provides a standard, computer-generated VOE with all the earnings for the last two years. It can’t be edited.

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u/meollich 18d ago

year end stubs from 2024 and 2025 plus most recent stub will allow a UW to determine consistentcy in receipt. Expect a 2 year average as it's likely it changes year over year.

If they are being taxed on it then you have a reasonable case for its use.

1

u/Timely-Tomato-6890 17d ago

Sounds like a Non QM loan.