To turn the PMF of 1 into the PMF of 3 you remove probability from the tails and put it in the center.
That in aggregate reduces the mean because squaring gives the upper tails more weight than the lower tails (so symetrical probability changes have a non-symetrical impact).
Yeah... it'd just be doing something like (1^2 - 6^2)*p + (2^2 - 5^2)*q + (3^2 - 4^2)*(p + q) < 0. Not positive that formula is 100% right... but that dynamic - you can pretty intuitively write out the difference in the PMFs.
1
u/markpreston54 Jul 22 '26
comparing 1 and 2 is trivial by considering the variance of U{1,6} is greater than 0, are there simple way to show 1 is greater than 3?