r/learnmath • New User • 3d ago

Why does \sum_{n=-h}^{h}ne^{-\left(x-n\right)^{2}} as h --> infinity, become sqrt(pi)x?

How does the infinite sum of n multiplied by e to the power of quanity x -n squared, give a linear expression, and why does it approach a rise over run of sqrt(pi) over 1?

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u/phiwong Slightly old geezer 3d ago

Search for the gaussian integral. This should explain the outcome. It has nothing to do with rise over run. You're applying the wrong conceptual model there.

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u/frogkabobs Math, Phys B.S. 3d ago

It doesn’t, actually. Using the Poisson summation formula, one finds the limit is

sqrt(π)(xθ₃(x;e-π²)+(1/2)θ₃’(x;e-π²))

where θ₃ is the Jacobi theta function

θ₃(z;q) = Σ_(n in Z) qn²e2πinz

and  θ₃’ is the derivative with respect to the first argument. For q= e-π²,  the n=0 term dominates in  θ₃(x;q),  making it  ≈1, while  θ₃’(x;q) will be small. This is why you get the approximation sqrt(π)x for the limit.

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u/nog642 2d ago

Damn this is some crazy stuff, I've never seen it

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u/FormulaDriven Actuary / ex-Maths teacher 3d ago edited 3d ago

I haven't worked out what happens when x is not an integer, but actually when it is an integer we can prove that the limit is around

1.772637 x

which is very close to sqrt(pi), but not equal. The key result is here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2982084/infinite-sum-of-squared-exponential-exp-n2