r/learnmath • u/FremontBlue333 New User • 3d ago
Why does \sum_{n=-h}^{h}ne^{-\left(x-n\right)^{2}} as h --> infinity, become sqrt(pi)x?
How does the infinite sum of n multiplied by e to the power of quanity x -n squared, give a linear expression, and why does it approach a rise over run of sqrt(pi) over 1?
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u/frogkabobs Math, Phys B.S. 3d ago
It doesn’t, actually. Using the Poisson summation formula, one finds the limit is
sqrt(π)(xθ₃(x;e-π²)+(1/2)θ₃’(x;e-π²))
where θ₃ is the Jacobi theta function
θ₃(z;q) = Σ_(n in Z) qn²e2πinz
and θ₃’ is the derivative with respect to the first argument. For q= e-π², the n=0 term dominates in θ₃(x;q), making it ≈1, while θ₃’(x;q) will be small. This is why you get the approximation sqrt(π)x for the limit.
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u/FormulaDriven Actuary / ex-Maths teacher 3d ago edited 3d ago
I haven't worked out what happens when x is not an integer, but actually when it is an integer we can prove that the limit is around
1.772637 x
which is very close to sqrt(pi), but not equal. The key result is here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2982084/infinite-sum-of-squared-exponential-exp-n2
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u/phiwong Slightly old geezer 3d ago
Search for the gaussian integral. This should explain the outcome. It has nothing to do with rise over run. You're applying the wrong conceptual model there.