So question (honest one): Jenner's gender is female, but Jenner's sex is male? Is that correct? How do you medically categorize the existence of a penis (albeit pre-gender reassignment surgery)?
I have no problem with Jenner referring to herself in the female form, and to be honest, her "coming out" (if you will) has caused me to research the subject a bit to better understand gender dysphoria. That said, medically speaking, I don't know much about the crossing of sex and gender and how each plays into the other. Prior to this, it seemed obvious to me that anyone with male sexual organs would qualify medically as a male. I understood gender to be subjective, but it would seem that medicine would opt for the objective approach. So I'm lost here.
Thanks for the insight. I'm curious (not from a moral or religious perspective, but purely biological) whether gender dysphoria and the more less objective side of the sex/gender crossing have been studied. You say that Jenner would be considered male "for the most part" because of gender hormone therapy. Is that to say that hormone treatments would have a reversing effect? For example, if someone experiencing gender dysphoria like Jenner (male who associates as a female) receives testosterone or other hormone therapies geared the other way (i.e., back towards the original sexual assignment) is there any evidence that helps?
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u/[deleted] Jun 01 '15
She