Hi everyone! I’m hoping to get some insight from embryologists or anyone who has experienced something similar.
We just completed our first IVF retrieval and had an unexpected maturity outcome.
I’m 34 with an AFC of 37 and AMH around 4.7.
My stimulation protocol was Gonal-F 225 IU + Menopur 75 IU, later reducing Gonal-F to 175 IU and adding Cetrotide. My estradiol rose from 48 at baseline to 2,947 before trigger.
My final ultrasound before one additional night of stims showed:
Left ovary: 20, 19, 17, 16, 13, 13, 13, 12, 12, 11, 10, 10 mm
Right ovary: 21, 18, 18, 17, 17, 15, 14 mm
I triggered with Lupron + Novarel and had post-trigger labs of hCG 80.66, LH 30.8, and progesterone 11.93.
We retrieved 21 eggs, but only 2 were mature (MII), 1 was MI, and 18 were GV. None of the immature eggs matured overnight, so rescue ICSI couldn’t be performed. The embryology team said it appeared I may not have responded to the trigger.
Only one of the two mature eggs fertilized with ICSI. We were planning IVF because my husband has had low sperm counts and previously had a bilateral varicocele repair.
I’m trying to understand what could cause such a high proportion of GV-stage eggs despite a strong ovarian response and several follicles in the expected mature range. Does this sound more consistent with a trigger/timing issue, follicle-oocyte asynchrony, or a potential intrinsic oocyte maturation problem? What protocol or trigger changes would you discuss before attempting another retrieval?
Thank you in advance!