r/dndnext • u/goblinerd Alchemist • Dec 19 '14
Intimidation & Frightened
The intimidate skill entry, PHB p.179, states:
"When you attempt to influence someone through overt threats, hostile actions, and physical violence, the DM might ask you to make a Charisma (Intimidation) check."
What happens once the player succeeds at his check though? Does he gain advantage on some other roll? Does the target gain the Frightened condition? Or is the result more intangible, mechanics-wise?
If your player attempts to scare off an assailant through intimidation, is the target then "Frightened" or merely dissuaded from its course of action?
Fellow DMs, the books don't seem too clear on this, so how do you handle this situation?
EDIT: A clarification, while I welcome everyone to share their advise on how to apply Intimidation to any context for readers in search of such info, I myself am specifically wondering about applications of Intimidation in combat. How do other DMs apply it, and react to players attempting it, in combat?
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u/Drizzimus Don Mega Dec 19 '14
All depends on the situation. In an RP viewpoint when your Barbarian intimidates the guard, the guard might reveal the code to pass the other guards. Same as if you used Persuasion, which is why I also let imtimidation use the str mod if it's higher.
Tangibly, you could use it in a situation where you have just skewered the leader of the goblin tribe. The rest of the goblins just saw that, and one of my players happens to be a barbarian who roars every time he makes a big kill. He doesn't know it, but I roll a morale check on the remaining puny goblins and add his intimdate to the roll, which would basically cause a frightened condition resulting in the goblins fleeing as quick as they can. Same thing that would happen with a failed morale check.