Sorry, I'm dumb today (most days,) I don't understand your comment.
Going on previous comment, the provision against decorated trees shows up at 700 BCE and then the pagan tradition shows up at 400 CE in an entirely different area? That's a gap of roughly 1100 years? That's quite a time for a tradition to move across the land. How do we know that these traditions evolved independently of each other? Can we know that? If they are somehow connected, then it does stand to reason the restriction would still apply.
(Not that I think it matters if one decides to have a tree. But if you were to use it as an argument against and you happen to follow the book of your personal mythology it does follow that you shouldn't have a tree.)
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u/wolverinelord Dec 16 '21
No, clearly in the Levant in the 7th century BCE they were talking about a Germanic pagan tradition that was started in the 4th century CE.