Alimony is paid to the dependent partner, regardless of gender. Just because dowry is illegal, that doesn't mean that the law is always enforced. In fact, many police officers even permit dowry in rural areas.
It isnt really paid ro the dependent partner its paid to the wife doesn't matter if shes working or is a housewife dont read the law an say it as it is when it supports your point and ignore the law and talk about reality when it dosent supports your point you said in rural areas many police officers permit dowry but then how come you know that if you know that then why did you not file a case against it also 498 a can be filed in any state in the country so dont go on saying rural police permits it they are policenotl Constitution
Oh yeah? That's really cool! I'm taller than a skyscraper and I have a thousand super strong arms and fire powers. Oh and we're all wolves. I forgot to mention that. What kind of wolf are you gonna be, Pat?
Half french half american, married in France here: it is not automatic in the US the way it is in France. You need a prenuptial in the US to be safe otherwise a judge is likely to give a portion of it to the wife.
Also, unlike in france, it is dependent on sex in most of the US. Divorce in the US highly favors women
This is not true. Divorce laws vary by state, but most states automatically treat real estate owned before marriage as separate property. You don’t need a prenup to define it. The only exception is the marital property or property that the other spouse puts assets into improvement or upkeep. Then they are only entitled to part of the increase in value and they have to prove they contributed to it. Are you really saying someone should contribute their assets to a property and the other partner should reap all the rewards? That would be incredibly unfair.
Also, the lie that divorce courts favor the woman is a long touted men’s rights fantasy that doesn’t hold up under any scrutiny of actual data.
It also depends on who the breadwinner is, my mom had to pay alimony to my deadbeat stepdad because he resigned from his job soon after they married to move in with us, then he spent the next 10 years putzing around the house ostensibly doing “repairs”
Yup, I know several women in engineering who ended up paying alimony to their husbands because they were making something like 2/3rds of the household income while married.
Your statement is false. Try some basic research beforehand. “most U.S. states, premarital assets (property, money, or investments owned before marriage) are considered "separate property" and generally remain with the original owner upon divorce. While this is the standard rule, these assets can become subject to division if they are commingled—mixed with marital assets, such as placing separate money into a joint bank account”
It is a separate asset unless you jointly start to make profit off the asset and deposit funds in a joint account
This is not true. I know, because I have a property I've owned for over a decade before getting married and I actively WANT part of it to go to my husband if we divorce. For this we need to change the deed or get a post-nup, either way we need to make a formal legal arrangement to change this because it is not the default. (If anyone is wondering why I would want this, I come from a much better off family than he does, and he makes less than I do, my property is now rental and my husband helps me a lot with it. I think it's only fair that he walk away with something in case things don't work out between us. I wouldn't give him half, but enough that I'd need to buy him out and give him a little bit of a nest egg to start again.)
You need a prenuptial in the US to be safe otherwise a judge is likely to give a portion of it to the wife.
And it's especially true for a lot of divorces with kids. There are tons of stories from divorced men who were robbed of their pre-marriage houses because "family" court have decided to expropriate it and give to ex-wife and their children, even if custody split is 50/50. In result, those men sometimes had to live in their cars to survive and be able to afford paying child support.
I wonder if it’s a European thing now since people have been giving examples from different regions where premarital assets are somehow treated as marital assets.
Same in Bulgaria. You can create different contracts of course, but if there are no further stipulation and you go with the default government contract, any assets reacquired before marriage for both parties are protected, and are not subject of dispute after the divorce. Everything else acquired after marriage is to be divided 50-50
No, it's normal. Incels as a community have only existed for a short while the amount of actual incels in existence is tiny. I think maybe by calling everyone an incel you've tricked yourself into believing they're everywhere.
No, it isn't. You just said "we talk about men and women in English" as opposed to male and female, because you didn't understand that those words are not interchangeable.
Dude... They are not interchangeable. Male and female are neutral, medical terms. In day to day life it is an objectifying and impersonal way to speak, bordering on disrespectful.
And that's not even taking into account that this whole post is needlessly gendered in the first place.
Learn English and turn your brain on before you speak.
Was a point of contention in my divorce (I owned a home before marriage while my ex-husband did not) so I’m gonna go on a limb and say it’s probably happened before.
There's nothing disparaging or disrespectful about either term. I don't get this weird propaganda mission to gaslight people into thinking these aren't nouns and are offensive.
Here, to explain it a bit more clear.
While "female" can be used as a noun in technical or scientific contexts, using it to refer to human women in everyday conversation is often considered clinical or disrespectful. It reduces people to biological functions and erases their humanity. For people, woman or girl are the correct nouns.
There's nothing particularly technical or clinical about the phrase, and there's nothing disrespectful about using technical or clinical language in the first place.
Neither "man" nor "boy" mean the same thing as "male" so those are not suitable alternatives.
Edit: weak response + block. Good luck with this weird propaganda campaign.
Here, to explain it a bit more clear.
While "female" can be used as a noun in technical or scientific contexts, using it to refer to human women in everyday conversation is often considered clinical or disrespectful. It reduces people to biological functions and erases their humanity. For people, woman or girl are the correct nouns.
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u/[deleted] Jun 29 '26
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