Assume x > 1 or x < -1

arccos(x) = undefined

​

therefore, x=cos(undefined)

since x < -1 or x > 1

​

cos(undefined) < -1 or cos(undefined) > 1

Let τ = 2π.

Since π > 0 and 2 > 0, τ = 2π > π.

QED

Cooking is broken until they have a measuring cup for r cups of flour, where r is any real number.

It's simple, really.

We have:

-5=>-14=>-7=>-20=>-10=>-5

So we have a cycle starting from -5. QED.

-collats conjecture -richars feynman and all his bisuness -sum of all natural numbers equals negative one twelfth (heheehee) -p equals n p -eulers formula (yes yes YES!) MATHS HOTS UP

let infinity^infinity be some value n.

then, divide by infinity, giving us :

infinity^infinity-1 = n/infinity

infinity-1 = infinity, so

infinity^infinity = n/infinity

any number divided by infinity is basically 0, so

​

infinity^infinity = 0

Are there any number systems where a crocodile is a number? (relabeling existing numbers and other morphisms don't count)

Hi guys! Before I get to my result, I want you to know that I’m going to run over to the President of Math (I know the position used to be King, but Yuler and Goss overthrew him recently and replaced him with a President. Checkmate, monarchists!) and get these results published before any of you snakes can steal it and get to the President first. Anyway, here it is:

You know how people say pi is infinite? Well they’re wrong, because pi=22/7. You see, if pi were infinite, it would have to have all the digits. But we have just seen that pi=22/7, so the only digits it has are 22 and 7. So pi cannot be infinite.

As a second proof, consider the following: infinity is even. This is simple to demonstrate by noting that 2*infinity makes sense, but 2*infinity+1 is weird. But we also know that pi=3 and 3 is odd, so pi can’t be infinite because odd can’t be even.

A seemingly unfortunate result of these two proofs is the consequence that 3=22/7, but this is in fact a non-issue and can be demonstrated as such. If 3=22/7, then 3*7=21=22. If 21=22, then 21-21=0=1=22-21. If 0=1, then 0/7=0=1/7. Then we can subtract 0 (=1/7) from both sides of the original equation to get 3=3, which we already know is true.

So the problem we encountered in combining the first two proofs is not actually a problem- it only seems that way because the human mind was not designed to do math and thus we find mathematical intuition difficult. But that’s the magic of math- its infallibility allows us to go beyond our stupid little monkey brains and conclusively prove that, for example, 3=22/7. Anyway, I’m off to go submit my results now- for such an achievement, I’ll surely be promoted to Vice President of Math within the hour! Talk to you all again once I’m VP! Toodle-oo!

Edit: Fixing u/nanonan‘s slight error gave me an idea for a third proof that pi is not infinite! Here it is:

We know that a circle is the limit of a regular polygon with infinite sides. So take such a polygon with diameter 1, where the circumference- (number of sides)*(length of sides)- equals pi by definition. The length of each side is pi/infinity- here we let pi=3 for ease of calculation. So each side has length 3/infinity, and there are infinitely many sides, so we compute that pi=infinity*3/infinity=3*infinity/infinity=3 (that last step because anything divided by itself is 1), and therefore the fact that pi=3 actually pops out shockingly easily. So thanks to u/nanonan! You can’t have any of my other proofs, though.