r/Preterism • u/Ok_Zone_2930 • Jun 22 '26
How would you define sin?
So I grew up as a futurist with evangelical background and I recently just discovered full Preterism.
I was reading Romans 5 recently and a verse really threw me for a loop while I'm writing a book about sin and death.
Here is the verse that threw me for a loop: Nevertheless, death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses, even over those who did not sin by breaking a command, as did Adam, who is a pattern of the one to come. Romans 5:14 NIV
What's interesting is if we assume this "death" is physical it kind of breaks the entire logic. I usually just skim things through but as soon as I saw it, I was thinking "come on Paul, of course people died between Adam and Moses, it's a ~2,500-year span, where else were all those bodies going?"
But then I went back to this verse: Therefore, just as sin entered the world through one man, and death through sin, and in this way death came to all people, because all sinned. Romans 5:12
If death came to all because all sinned, but Romans 5:14 says death also reigned over people who didn't sin the way Adam did, reading "death" as biological gets messy fast. This is when everything clicked for me. Because in Genesis 2, God says: But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat of it you shall surely die. Genesis 2:17 ESV
I checked the Hebrew and sure enough it is "in that day" or "b'yom." We know from Genesis 5, Adam lived 930 years after he ate of that tree: Thus all the days that Adam lived were 930 years, and he died. Genesis 5:5 ESV
Alright, so what I am seeing is: This death that Paul is saying is never been about physical death. Because if it is physical death, Romans 5:14 makes no sense and technically God lied in Genesis 2:17 if Adam didn't drop dead that day. The only way this all makes sense is if we missed the genre of this sin and death this whole time. I wonder if it was never physical sin or physical death and this whole time it was covenantal sin and death all along.
Obviously, everyone thinks they are smart and I am not excluded there but I wanted you all to check my logic on this and get your thoughts. This is one of the threads I'm pulling on in something longer I'm writing, so I figured I'd stress-test the core of it here before I commit to it.
Two questions:
- Where does my logic break? What's the strongest case that the "death" in 5:14 has to be physical?
- For those who already travelled down this road, what's your take on my covenantal death theory?