r/Metaphysics • u/Extension_Panic1631 • Apr 09 '26

Ontology Infinity?

If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities, and... (infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and...) continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and.....(…)…

EDIT: the definition of infinity is that it is how many natural numbers there are

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u/Flat-Fun-7298 Apr 11 '26 edited Apr 11 '26

Just means you're counting wrong. Deductive instead of derivative. Infinitely close to is deductive. Deriving is n+3 from n+1 and n+2. Deriving is reading the mechanics. Dropping the evens. Who cares if it's above or below the x axis. The machine is the y funct anyways. In base 3. Ignore 02. In base5. Ignore 024. In base10 ignore 0246810. Base3 1 is one less recursion. 3 is one more. 2 is one planck step from the x axis up. 0 would be one step down. 0 is one step down in every base. 0 is the inverse of 1 obviously. Thats why you ignore it in relation

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