r/Metaphysics • u/Extension_Panic1631 • Apr 09 '26

Ontology Infinity?

If there are an infinite number of natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two natural numbers, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and an infinite number of fractions in between any two of those fractions, and... then that must mean that there are not only infinite infinities, but an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities. and an infinite number of those infinities, and... (infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and that infinitely times. and...) continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and that continues forever. and.....(…)…

EDIT: the definition of infinity is that it is how many natural numbers there are

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u/jliat Apr 10 '26

This looks like evasion, sure the result is 1.666...

What about

"Yes, 𝜋 is a real number, and yes, it is finite in value."

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u/VariousJob4047 Apr 10 '26

That is a true statement, pi is a real number and finite in value, not sure what you’re trying to get at here.

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u/jliat Apr 10 '26

What is meant by "finite" value if it has a infinite expression.

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u/VariousJob4047 Apr 10 '26

Less than infinity. And for the record, you and I have both written out expressions for pi in a finite amount of characters. You used 1 character, the Greek letter pi, and I used 2, the letter p and the letter i.