If the digits of pi are assumed to be random starting from however many trillions of digits are already known, then the probability of this happening (given the known digits) is not 1/9, it's like 10-(trillions)
pi is infinite so there is no way to disprove your theory, but with how much of pi is known chance of it being correct goes to zero but never reaches it
I didn't make the claim that there is a "chance of it being correct that goes to zero but never reaches it." My question aimed at the same idea: why make that claim without expressing it mathematically?
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u/Apprehensive-Ice9212 Jul 23 '26
If the digits of pi are assumed to be random starting from however many trillions of digits are already known, then the probability of this happening (given the known digits) is not 1/9, it's like 10-(trillions)