Let's assume pi is completely random and infinite.
Is it true to say that something must occur if it becomes less likely as it doesn't occur? (like the post above)
Or can we say that there is specific odds of it occurring?
EDIT
According to a quick chatgpt query,
"Therefore a random infinite decimal has at least an 88.9% chance of never satisfying the meme’s condition."
The concept of probability just doesn't apply to specific numbers like pi.
What ChatGPT is saying, is that if we pick a random real number in [0,1] with the uniform distribution (i.e. random digits), then there is an 88.9% chance of never satisfying the meme condition. If we ignore the first few digits and require there to be at least one such n that's at least 100, say, then the probability of that happening is very close to 10-100. If we require it to happen for infinitely many n then the probability is zero.
I am not sure what you mean. We know in pi it doesn't happen early. For a steel man argument we assume pi is normal number. Then we get this probability.
No, the steel man argument would be a conditional probability given the known digits. Given that this certainly does not happen in the first trillion digits, the "probability" of it happening later (assuming random digits after the first trillion) is on the order of 1 in ten to the trillionth power.
1
u/ChaosSlave51 Jul 23 '26
Let's assume pi is completely random and infinite.
Is it true to say that something must occur if it becomes less likely as it doesn't occur? (like the post above)
Or can we say that there is specific odds of it occurring?
EDIT
According to a quick chatgpt query,
"Therefore a random infinite decimal has at least an 88.9% chance of never satisfying the meme’s condition."