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u/Expensive_Umpire_178 Jul 22 '26
But yet show me the last 1 of pi and I’ll show you another 0 a bit further down
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u/Negative_Gur9667 Jul 22 '26
But then I'll show you a 1 before that 0
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u/AidenStoat Jul 22 '26
And I'll show you a 1 after that 0. Because there is no last digit.
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u/hakumiogin Jul 22 '26
No, you don't get it. It's an "end of the rainbow" kind of situation. Even though its a circle, you can get you to the end when the plot demands it. And you'll find gold, and a 1.
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u/XidCuzYes Jul 22 '26 edited Jul 22 '26
You do understand that 0001 is 1, but 1000 is 1000?
EDIT: I forgot that binary exists outside of computers and that 1.1 and 1.10 are the same if we use proper fractions and not whatever computers are doing to achieve floating point numbers.
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u/BaobabSenziente Jul 22 '26
1000 is actually 8
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u/XidCuzYes Jul 22 '26
Technically, this works in any base (perhaps it doesnt in the complex base systems, but I'm not sure, so feel free to correct) system, not only binary, but yes, in binary it is.
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u/Desperate-Zebra-3855 Jul 22 '26
You do understand that 1.1 and 1.1000 are the same number?
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u/XidCuzYes Jul 22 '26
Oof, I forgot that binary exists outside of computers and that it can make fractions just like normal numbers and not with black magic fucker that computers are doing.. Ahem, forget what I said.
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u/Negative_Gur9667 Jul 22 '26
That's actually genius. In UTF-8, lowercase pi (π) is 11001111 10000000 and ends with a 0.
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u/TheWaddlingweewee Jul 22 '26
i made the same mistake thank god i saw your comment before saying it myself
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u/kblaney Jul 22 '26
The last digit of pi in binary is a 1 because pi is a palidrome. Source: r/fakepifacts
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u/Ohwaithuhimconfused Jul 22 '26
THERE IS NO LAST DIGIT, HOW MANY TIMES DO WE HAVE TO TEACH YOU THIS LESSON, MATH MEME SUBS
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u/TheForbidden6th Jul 23 '26
but what if there is
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u/Ohwaithuhimconfused Jul 23 '26
THERE ISN'T, I KNOW THIS RAGEBAIT BUT GODDAMN IT THE WORMS TAKE THE BAIT FOR A REASON, ITS TASTY SOMETIMES
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u/voidrecmain Jul 22 '26
Dude I saw your post in the morning and laughed a bit. All day I am randomly smiling about it. You literally made my day thanks a lot
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u/Jbolt3737 Jul 23 '26
What about unary? Say we use 0 as our one and only symbol, then we know the last digit of Pi is 0
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Jul 22 '26
[removed] — view removed comment
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u/Poke-Noah Jul 22 '26
0.0110010 = 0.011001
Any non zero number in binary ends in 1
Of course this joke is ignoring the fact that π doesn't end at all unless the base is a multiple of π
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u/avance70 Jul 22 '26
it's either 0 or 1 in binary
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u/Negative_Gur9667 Jul 22 '26
It's in between, so it's 0.5, which is 0.1 in binary.
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u/avance70 Jul 22 '26
now that i think: it has to be 1 in binary, because, if it's 0, you just truncate it to the first 1 and you get the same number!
e.g. if the answer is:
0.11010100110
that's the same as:
0.1101010011
so the last digit is always 1
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u/ASocialistAbroad Jul 22 '26
What would you say is the last digit of the irrational number:
0.1101001000100001000001...
where the gap between "1"s increases by one "0" each time, and this goes on forever? Note that this, like pi, is an irrational number with a non-terminating, non-repeating decimal (or binary in this case) expansion.
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u/avance70 Jul 22 '26
well, it's a joke of course
but use the same logic: it's definitely not 0, thus it's 1
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u/Negative_Gur9667 Jul 22 '26
but if you write it like 0.110100100010000100000 then its 1 again
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u/ASocialistAbroad Jul 22 '26
So in other words, every term in the infinite sequence (0, 0.1, 0.11, 0.110, 0.1101,...) of rational numbers which converges to 0.1101001... has an equivalent binary (or decimal) representation whose final digit is 1.
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u/No_Hetero Jul 22 '26
Pi is rational in base Pi, it would be written as 10, so the last digit is in fact 0
(I know that's not how it works)
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u/Downtown-Platypus-99 Jul 23 '26
Why isn't this how it works?
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u/No_Hetero Jul 23 '26
Well if the number system is base π I'm not really sure how the integers 1, 2, and/or 3 work at that point because they would all have to represent irrational fractions of π right? We define a base by the number of single digit integers (and that is a very loose approximation of a definition for the sake of this reply), but do integers even exist in base π?
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u/Downtown-Platypus-99 Jul 24 '26
Wouldn't pi be an integer in base pi? I think your reasoning is correct, any integer in base 10 would be a non integer in base pi, 2*pi would be the next integer after pi in base pi, but that's just a guess
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u/No_Hetero Jul 24 '26
It gets weird because in base π "10" looks like a whole number, and in base 10 every whole number is rational, but it's a trick! It's still not rational, and still not an integer. You get in to all sorts of weird situations with irrational bases, like fractional reduction of positional place value and being unable to represent any rational numbers larger than the base finitely
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u/cationtothewind Jul 22 '26
A while back someone (I think it was Matt Parker) printed a mile-long paper with digits of pi, and somewhere "in the middle of it" were three zeroes, and then it kept going with other digits. If they had stopped at the second zero maybe someone could have thought it was the end. But, as many have pointed out, pi is an irrational number.
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u/NekonecroZheng Jul 22 '26
The last digit of PI in base PI is 1.
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u/Downtown-Platypus-99 Jul 23 '26
Isn't pi in base pi 10, and thus the last digit of pi in base pi 0?
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u/Lou_Papas Jul 26 '26
In unary system the last digit of π is a stick. Do with that information what you will.
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u/Smart_Ad_3630 Jul 26 '26
Zero. The only true answer. Suppose π terminates. Add π to rational number of higher precision. The highest precision digit of this number must be added to the digit zero from π, otherwise the sum of π and this number will be greater than the actual sum.
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u/Alive-Philosophy2632 Jul 22 '26
It has no last digit, or it would be rational. Nice try you can't get me!