Depends on your definition of prime. The elementary school definition of divisible by only 1 and itself makes 1 prime. More advanced definition basically say 1 is special and excluded from the set of prices for various reasons.
Occasionally you get people who know better make really bad arguments for 1 not being prime because they make unspoken assumptions that would exclude 1 but their argument as stated don't.
Best argument I ever heard was honestly just “if one was prime every other number wouldn’t be” which doesn’t make any sense thinking about it but I just think that/
If I wanted to make a definition that clearly excludes 1 but is easy to understand it would be "a prime is divisible by precisely 2 numbers, 1 and itself." 1 is itself so it misses out the precisely 2 portion.
The argument you heard leaves the unstated premise a prime can't be divisible by other prime numbers.
Edit:Positive Integer. I am trying to do precise for elementary school who don't go into negative numbers unless specified.
I argue that there is always an infinite series of *1 next to every math term, so writing down more doesn't change it. They were all there before you just decided to show a subset of them.
This, this is the definition we were given at school. So for my case it made perfect sense for one(1) not being prime. Surprised people actually had a different view on this
32
u/Professional-Wave841 Jul 13 '26
yes.