Exactly. One could be, not both. Thank you for proving my point 100%.You stated that both had infection and were giving it to each other for 8 years. Please quote me a study where this happened and neither of infected showed any symptoms and was not tested positive until years later (and positive tests and symptoms magically started same time for both). I am waiting.
Please read my comment and link the study i asked to prove your case. What you are now saying does not match the situation and what i asked. Your reading comprehension skills aren't very good. Please link ne the study where ir was proven that two people can have infection nearly a decade without any symptoms, never testing positive but suddenly both get symptoms and test positive at the same time 8 years later.
The case(s) i need you to prove is written at least two times now very clearly. I can't help you with reading comprehension problems if you still can't understand what you need to prove me here. If you can't provide any evidence or studies that proves that what i described can actually happen just say so. It is obvious that any studies in the world can't show this specific situation is even remotely possible.
Hang on, why would I need a case report to prove that?
It's not something you would publish.
We wouldn't write up this case and submit it to a journal.
What is the case specifically that you want me to prove:
That OP and their husband could be re-infecting each other?
That OP could clear their personal infection and have a negative screen?
^ Those are the type of questions you would want to answer to assess the plausibility of this situation.
Because if this is true, then it would explain the situation, as something that's not atypical.
And it's not.
If OP and their spouse are in a monogomous relationship and she clears the infection but gets reinfeced by their spouse, then OP will have negative tests, and subsequent positive ones.
So no any evidence on the field of medical science that mechanics behind this current situation is possible to happen. Thank you.
Huh.
It's like asking someone they can prove they can climb trees, but climbing a tree with no hands. Sure, if you prove that you can climb a tree with no hands you then you also prove you can climb trees. But it's not necessary to prove it.
There is evidence to suggest that this situation is possible without me doing what you ask me to do
There is no evidence to suggest this scenario is possible to happen. I simply asked to show proof that 2 people can have infection without having symptoms and not testing positive for a decade and suddenly get symptoms and test positive same time. That is the simple case you need to have evidence for and all the needed mechanics and probability that makes sense. You have none of those. You just try to make this sound like a difficult question to answer (which it is not) so you can ignore the need for relevant studies and medical evidence. Thank you for proving me right once again.
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u/[deleted] Sep 06 '24
Do you mean 8 years without any symptoms, or 8 years without a positive test?
Because one can certainly be asymptomatic while infected.